September 19, 2007
Students at many of the country's most prestigious colleges and universities are graduating with less knowledge of American history, government, and economics than they had as incoming freshmen, with Harvard University seniors scoring a "D+" average on a 60-question multiple-choice exam about civic literacy.
According to a report released yesterday by the Intercollegiate Studies Institute, the average college senior at the 50 colleges and universities polled did not earn a passing grade.
"At the most expensive colleges, they actually graduate knowing less," the executive director of the Jack Miller Center at the Intercollegiate Studies Institute, Michael Ratliff, said. "Colleges and universities are not directing students to the courses that would educate them. We want to know whether after getting $300 billion to do their work, universities are actually educating their students."
At universities such as Princeton, Yale, Cornell, Duke, and Berkeley, seniors scored lower on the test than freshmen, living proof of the broadening relevancy of the old Harvard adage that the university is a storehouse of knowledge because "the freshmen bring so much and the seniors take away so little."
Answers are at bottom of test
September 19, 2007
1) Jamestown, Virginia, was first settled by Europeans during which period?
A. 1301-1400
B. 1400-1500
C. 1501-1600
D. 1601-1700
E.
1701-1800
2) The Puritans:
A. opposed all wars on moral grounds.
B. stressed the sinfulness of all
humanity.
C. believed in complete religious freedom.
D. colonized Utah
under the leadership of Brigham Young.
E. were Catholic missionaries escaping
religious persecution.
3) The Constitution of the United States established what form of government?
A. Direct democracy
B. Populism
C. Indirect democracy
D.
Oligarchy
E. Aristocracy
4) George Washington's role in America's founding is best characterized as:
A. prudent general and statesman.
B. influential writer on constitutional
principles.
C. leader of the Massachusetts delegation to the Constitutional
congress.
D. strong advocate for states rights.
E. social compact
theorist.
5) Which battle brought the American Revolution to an end?
A. Saratoga
B. Gettysburg
C. The Alamo
D. Yorktown
E. New
Orleans
6) Which of the following are the unalienable rights referred to in the Declaration of Independence?
A. Life, liberty, and property
B. Honor, liberty, and peace
C. Liberty,
health, and community
D. Life, respect, and equal protection
E. Life,
liberty, and the pursuit of happiness
7) Which of the following are in correct chronological order?
A. The Constitution, the Declaration of Independence, the Articles of
Confederation
B. Fort Sumter, Gettysburg, Appomattox
C. Cuban Missile
Crisis, Sputnik, Bay of Pigs
D. Mexican-American War, Louisiana Purchase,
Spanish-American War
E. Prohibition, Boston Tea Party, Reconstruction
8) The phrase that in America there should be a "wall of separation" between church and state appears in:
A. George Washington's Farewell Address.
B. The Mayflower Compact.
C.
the Constitution.
D. the Declaration of Independence.
E. Thomas
Jefferson's letters.
9) The War of 1812:
A. was a decisive victory for the United States over Spain.
B. was a
stalemate.
C. established America as the leading power in the world.
D.
enhanced Robert E. Lee's reputation as America's most talented general.
E.
was confined only to sea battles.
10) The dominant theme in the Lincoln-Douglas debates was:
A. treatment of Native Americans.
B. westward expansion.
C. whether
Illinois should become a state.
D. prohibition.
E. slavery and its
expansion.
11) Abraham Lincoln was elected President during which period?
A. 1800-1825
B. 1826-1850
C. 1851-1875
D. 1876-1900
E.
1901-1925
12) In 1933 Franklin Delano Roosevelt proposed a series of government programs that became known as:
A. The Great Society.
B. The Square Deal.
C. The New Deal.
D. The
New Frontier.
E. Supply-side economics.
13) The struggle between President Andrew Johnson and the Radical Republicans was mainly over:
A. United States alliances with European nations.
B. the nature and
control of Reconstruction.
C. the purchase of Alaska.
D. whether or not to
have a tariff.
E. whether slavery should be allowed in the Federal
Territories.
14) During which period was the American Constitution amended to guarantee women the right to vote?
A. 1850-1875
B. 1876-1900
C. 1901-1925
D. 1926-1950
E.
1951-1975
15) Which of the following statements is true about abortion?
A. It was legal in most states in the 1960s.
B. The Supreme Court struck
down most legal restrictions on it in Roe v. Wade.
C. The Supreme
Court ruled in Plessy v. Ferguson that underage women must notify their
parents of an impending abortion.
D. The National Organization for Women has
lobbied for legal restrictions on it.
E. It is currently legal only in cases
of rape or incest, or to protect the life of the mother.
16) The end of legal racial segregation in United States schools was most directly the result of:
A. the Civil War.
B. the Declaration of Independence.
C. the
affirmative action policies of the 1980s.
D. Brown v. Board of Education
of Topeka.
E. Miranda v. the State of Arizona.
17) The Manhattan Project developed:
A. urban enterprise zones.
B. equipment to decipher enemy codes.
C.
fighter planes.
D. the Apollo lunar module.
E. the atomic bomb.
18) The line "We hold these truths to be self-evident, that all men are created equal . . ." is from:
A. The Federalist.
B. the Preamble to the Constitution.
C.
The Communist Manifesto.
D. The Declaration of Independence.
E. An
inscription on the Statue of Liberty.
19) In The Republic, Plato points to the desirability of:
A. tyranny.
B. democracy.
C. philosopher kings.
D. commercial
republics.
E. world government.
20) A "representative democracy" is a form of government in which:
A. all or most citizens govern directly.
B. a monarch is elected to
represent a people.
C. citizens exhibit wide ethnic and cultural
diversity.
D. a president's cabinet is popularly elected.
E. those elected
by the people govern on their behalf.
21) The Federalist (or The Federalist Papers) was written to:
A. support ratification of the U.S. Constitution.
B. oppose ratification
of the U.S. Constitution.
C. support America's independence from
Britain.
D. oppose America's independence from Britain.
E. support the
Missouri Compromise.
22) The principle of the "separation of powers" suggests that:
A. legislative, executive, and judicial powers should be dispersed.
B.
government becomes more efficient with division of labor.
C. there should
always be at least two global superpowers.
D. no single political party
should dominate any legislature.
E. courts should formulate policy during
periods of Congressional gridlock.
23) The power of judicial review was established in:
A. the Constitution.
B. Marbury v. Madison.
C. McCulloch v.
Maryland.
D. the Bill of Rights.
E. a Presidential executive
order.
24) What is federalism?
A. A political party at the time of the Founding.
B. A set of essays
defending the Constitution.
C. A political system where the national
government has ultimate power.
D. A political system where state and national
governments share power.
E. The belief that America should be unified with a
trans-continental railroad.
25) The common law:
A. was ruled unconstitutional by the United States Supreme Court.
B. is
based upon past custom and emerging case law.
C. was the fundamental law for
the Nazis and the Soviets.
D. is a new form of jurisprudence being tested in
Louisiana.
E. consists of only those statutes approved by popular
referendum.
26) The Declaration of Independence relies most obviously on the political thought of:
A. Plato.
B. Niccolo Machiavelli.
C. David Hume.
D. John
Locke.
E. Georg Hegel.
27) Which statement is a common argument against the claim that "man cannot know things"?
A. Professors teach opinion not knowledge.
B. Appellate judges do not
comprehend social justice.
C. Consensus belief in a democracy always contains
error.
D. Man trusts his ability to know in order to reject his ability to
know.
E. Social scientists cannot objectively rank cultures.
28) In his "I Have a Dream" speech, Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr.:
A. argued for the abolition of slavery.
B. advocated black
separatism.
C. morally defended affirmative action.
D. expressed his hopes
for racial justice and brotherhood.
E. proposed that several of America's
founding ideas were discriminatory.
29) Socrates, Plato, Aristotle, and Aquinas would concur that:
A. all moral and political truth is relative to one's time and place.
B.
moral ideas are best explained as material accidents or byproducts of
evolution.
C. values originating in one's conscience cannot be judged by
others.
D. Christianity is the only true religion and should rule the
state.
E. certain permanent moral and political truths are accessible to
human reason.
30) The Bill of Rights explicitly prohibits:
A. prayer in public school.
B. discrimination based on race, sex, or
religion.
C. the ownership of guns by private individuals.
D. establishing
an official religion for the United States.
E. the President from vetoing a
line item in a spending bill.
31) Which author's view of society is presented correctly?
A. Edmund Burke argued that society consists of a union of past, present, and
future generations.
B. Adam Smith argued that the division of labor decreases
the wealth of nations.
C. Alexis de Tocqueville argued that voluntary
associations are usually dangerous to society.
D. Max Weber argued that the
Jewish work ethic is central to American capitalism.
E. John Locke defended
the divine right of kings.
32) In 1776, Thomas Paine argued for colonial independence from Britain in:
A. the Declaration of Independence.
B. Common Sense.
C.
Novanglus.
D. A View of the Controversy between Great Britain and
Her Colonies.
E. Letter from Birmingham Jail.
33) Which of the following is NOT among the official powers of Congress?
A. To declare war.
B. To regulate commerce with foreign nations.
C. To
receive ambassadors.
D. To create courts lower than the Supreme Court.
E.
To approve treaties with foreign nations.
34) The warning to the American people to avoid entangling alliances and involvement in Europe's wars is found in:
A. President Eisenhower's Farewell Address.
B. President Washington's
Farewell Address.
C. Woodrow Wilson's Fourteen Points.
D. The
League of Nations Covenant.
E. The Treaty of Versailles of 1919.
35) The Monroe Doctrine:
A. discouraged new colonies in the Western hemisphere.
B. proclaimed
America's "Manifest Destiny."
C. was the earliest recorded agreement between
the United States and France.
D. was America's response to Aleksandr
Solzhenitsyn's Gulag Archipelago.
E. resolved border disputes among
the thirteen colonies.
36) According to just-war theory, a just war requires which of the following?
A. Approval by the International Court of Justice.
B. Endorsement by
democratic vote.
C. A threatening shift in the balance of powers.
D. The
authority of a legitimate sovereign.
E. That no civilian casualties
occur.
37) Which of the following was an alliance to resist Soviet expansion:
A. United Nations.
B. League of Nations.
C. North Atlantic Treaty
Organization.
D. Warsaw Pact.
E. Asian Tigers.
38) What kind of government is a junta?
A. Military
B. Religious
C. Populist
D. Social democratic
E.
Parliamentarian
39) The question of why democracy leads to well-ordered government in America when disorder prevails in Europe is central to:
A. Thomas Jefferson's Notes on the State of Virginia.
B. Walt
Whitman's Democratic Vistas.
C. John Adams's "Thoughts on
Government."
D. Alexis de Tocqueville's Democracy in America.
E.
Charles Beard's An Economic Interpretation of the Constitution of the United
States.
40) The United Nations was organized in:
A. 1953 to combat the power of American corporations.
B. 1945 to promote
"international organization."
C. 1937 to deter the spread of Nazism.
D.
1968 to pursue nuclear disarmament.
E. 1961 to curtail global warming.
41) The major powers at odds with each other in the "Cold War" were the United States and:
A. Germany.
B. Iran.
C. Vietnam.
D. the Soviet Union.
E.
Poland.
42) How did President Kennedy respond to the Cuban Missile Crisis?
A. He imposed a naval blockade on Cuba.
B. He landed Cuban exiles at the
Bay of Pigs.
C. He sent troops to Cuba to destroy nuclear weapons.
D. He
went to Havana to meet with Fidel Castro.
E. He ended all diplomatic
communications with the Soviet Union.
43) "Balance of power" refers to:
A. A state that seeks to expand its power generates resistance by other
states.
B. States that are militarily powerful tend to acquire strong
allies.
C. Weaker states tend to "join the winner" in most international
conflicts.
D. Land and sea powers have tended to balance one another.
E.
Terrorists conceal their demands and affiliations.
44) The Gulf of Tonkin Resolution (1964) was significant because it:
A. ended the war in Korea.
B. gave President Johnson the authority to
expand the scope of the Vietnam War.
C. was an attempt to take foreign policy
power away from the President.
D. allowed China to become a member of the
United Nations.
E. allowed for oil exploration in Southeast Asia.
45) Which wall was President Reagan referring to when he said, "Mr. Gorbachev, tear down this wall"?
A. Kremlin Wall
B. Wailing Wall
C. Hadrian's Wall
D. Great Wall of
China
E. Berlin Wall
46) Among which of these groups would Saddam Hussein have found his most reliable supporters?
A. Islamic Brotherhood
B. Baath Party
C. Communist Party
D.
Hamas
E. Israelis
47) The stated United States objective of the 1991 Persian Gulf War was to:
A. block Soviet expansion in the Middle East.
B. defend Israel.
C.
overthrow the Iraqi government.
D. expel Iraqi forces from Kuwait.
E.
recover control of the Suez Canal.
48) Inflation:
A. results from an over-abundance of goods and services.
B. has not been a
problem since the Great Depression.
C. reduces money's purchasing power even
when some prices decrease.
D. is monitored daily by the Dow Jones
Industrial Average.
E. remains beyond the influence of central banks due
to oil price fluctuations.
49) Free enterprise or capitalism exists insofar as:
A. experts managing the nation's commerce are appointed by elected
officials.
B. individual citizens create, exchange, and control goods and
resources.
C. charity, philanthropy, and volunteering decrease.
D. demand
and supply are decided through majority vote.
E. Government implements
policies that favor businesses over consumers.
50) Free markets typically secure more economic prosperity than government's centralized planning because:
A. the price system utilizes more local knowledge of means and ends.
B.
markets rely upon coercion, whereas government relies upon voluntary compliance
with the law.
C. more tax revenue can be generated from free
enterprise.
D. property rights and contracts are best enforced by the market
system.
E. government planners are too cautious in spending taxpayers'
money.
51) Which of the following is the best measure of production or output of an economy?
A. Gross Domestic Product
B. Consumer Price Index
C. Unemployment
Rate
D. Prime Rate
E. Exchange Rate
52) Business profit is:
A. cost minus revenue.
B. assets minus liabilities.
C. revenue minus
expenses.
D. selling price of a stock minus its purchase price.
E.
earnings minus assets.
53) National defense is considered a public good because:
A. a majority of citizens value it.
B. a resident can benefit from it
without directly paying for it.
C. military contracts increase employment
opportunities.
D. a majority of citizens support the military during
war.
E. airport security personnel are members of the Federal civil
service.
54) Keynesian economists conclude that the recession phase of a business cycle:
A. involves a lower unemployment rate.
B. occurs when investment spending
crowds out consumer spending.
C. can be eliminated by government taxing more
than it spends.
D. can be reversed by government spending more than it
taxes.
E. can be reversed with higher interest rates.
55) Over the past forty years, real income among American households has:
A. remained the same when averaged over all households.
B. involved the
rich getting richer and the poor getting poorer.
C. involved the poor getting
richer and the rich getting poorer.
D. decreased for the middle class and
increased for the upper class.
E. increased for the lower and middle classes
and increased most for the upper class.
56) Why are businesses in two different countries most likely to trade with each other?
A. They know that although one business will be hurt from trading, the other
will be better off, and they both hope to be the winner.
B. Businesses are
unable to sell their products in their own countries.
C. Each business
expects to be better off as a result of the trade.
D. Their respective
governments require them to do so.
E. The natural resources of both countries
are similar.
57) The price of movie tickets has increased. According to the law of demand, what is likely to be the result?
A. Theaters will sell fewer tickets.
B. Theaters' revenues will
increase.
C. The quality of movie theaters will improve.
D. The number of
videos rented will decrease.
E. Popcorn purchases at theaters will
increase.
58) What is a major effect of a purchase of bonds by the Federal Reserve?
A. A reduction in the supply of common stock.
B. An increase in the volume
of commercial bank loans.
C. A decrease in the supply of money.
D. An
increase in interest rates.
E. A decrease in investment spending by
businesses.
59) A progressive tax:
A. encourages more investment from those with higher incomes.
B. is
illustrated by a 6% sales tax.
C. requires those with higher incomes to pay a
higher ratio of taxes to income.
D. requires every income class to pay the
same ratio of taxes to income.
E. earmarks revenues for poverty
reduction.
60) The Federal government's largest pay out over the past twenty years has been for:
A. military.
B. social security.
C. interest on the national
debt.
D. education.
E. foreign aid.
1. D
2. B
3. C
4. A
5. D
6. E
7. B
8. E
9. B
10.
E
11. C
12. C
13. B
14. C
15. B
16. D
17. E
18. D
19.
C
20. E
21. A
22. A
23. B
24. D
25. B
26. D
27. D
28.
D
29. E
30. D
31. A
32. B
33. C
34. B
35. A
36. D
37.
C
38. A
39. D
40. B
41. D
42. A
43. A
44. B
45. E
46.
B
47. D
48. C
49. B
50. A
51. A
52. C
53. B
54. D
55.
E
56. C
57. A
58. B
59. C
60. B