Model Entrance Examination 1999
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Here are the questions of the Alumni Model Entrance Examination 1999 :
Page 1
**Go to Page 2 **Go to Page 3 **Answers
1. A
tumour arising in a burn scar is most likely to be:
a. Squamous cell carcinoma b. Basal cell carcinoma c. Malignant
melanoma d. Sweat gland adenocarcinoma
2. Chronic
constrictive pericarditis usually results from:
a. Rheumatic fever b. Myocardial infarction c. Tuberculosis d.
Emphysema
3.
Periglomerular fibrosis is considered typical of:
a. Chronic pyelonephritis b. Chronic glomerulonephritis c.
Arterio nephrosclerosis d. Malignant hypertension
4.
Abscess formation is most common in:
a.Lobar pneumonia b. Streptococcal pneumonia c.Viral pneumonia d.
Staphylococcal pneumonia
5. Haemolytic
anemia does not result from:
a. Congenital spheocytosis b. Sickle cell disease c. Thalassemic
haemosiderosis d. Erythroblastosis foetalis
6. Bone
marrow aspiration is contraindicated by:
a. Hepatic cellular disease b. Corpulmonale c. Acute leukaemia d.
Haemophilia
7.
Complications of myocardial infarction include all of the
following except:
a. Pulmonary emboli b. Arrhythmias c. Septic emboli to the brain
d. Shock
8. Chromosomal
abnormalities are frequently encountered in:
a. Aplastic anemia b. Hereditary spherocytic anemia c. Chronic
myelocytic leukaemia d. Pseudohaemophilia
9. All of
the following disease are characterised by splenomegaly except:
a. Kala-azar b. Haemolytic anaemia c. Thrombocytopaenic purpura
d. Sickle cell anemia in adults.
10. Changes
in the brain leading to mental retardation is an important
feature of:
a. Cystinuria b. Phenylketonuria c. Alkaptonuria d. Galactosuria
11. The
following conditions are accepted as precancerous except:
a. Polyposis of the colon b. Ulcerative colitis c. Regional
ileitis d. Pigmentary cirrhosis
12. Auto
immunity is known to have a role in the causation of:
a. Hashimoto's disease b. Diabetes mellitus c. Addison's disease
d. All of the above
13. The
LE cell is positive in all the following conditions except:
a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Systemic lupus erythematosus c.
Penicillin reaction d. Hashimoto's disease
14. Defective
humeral immunity is present in all the following except:
a. Mycosis fungoides b. Heavy chain disease c.
Hypogammaglobulinemia d. Multiple myeloma
15. All
of the following have chromosomal abnormalities except:
a. Turner's syndrome b. Down's syndrome c. Hurler's syndrome d.
Adrenogenital syndrome
16. Bleeding
diathesis is a common presenting symptom in:
a. Acute promyelocytic leukaemia b. Chronic myeloid leukaemia c.
Myelomonocytic leukaemia d. Chronic lymphoid leukaemia
17. This
is considered to be a premalignant condition in the breast:
a. Pubertal hyperplasia b. Mammary dysplasia c. Plasma cell
mastitis d. Galactocele
18. Alpha
antitrypsin deficiency is usually associated with:
a. Pulmonary emphysema b. Fatty liver c. Intestinal malabsorption
d. All of the above
19.
Autoimmune thyroid disorders are usually associated with:
a. Hypothyroidism b. Antithyroglobulin antibodies c.
Antimicrosomal antibodies d. All of the above.
20. This
condition is usually associated with lymphoma:
a. Regional enteritis b. Immune deficiency states c.
Lymphangiectasia d. Xeroderma pigmentosa
21. All
the following are examples of primary disorders of connective
tissue except:
a. Marfan's syndrome b. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum c. Xanthelasma
d. Scleroderma
22. Fibrinoid
necrosis is the hall mark of:
a. Gouty tophi b. Diabetic vasculopathy c. Malignant hypertension
d. Endarteritis obliterans
23. All
these lesions are precancerous except:
a. Polyposis colon b. Leukoplakia of buccal mucosa c. Vesical
papilloma d. Fibroadenoma
24. Which
is not a precancerous lesion
a. Leucoplakia b. Vesical papilloma c. Chronic cervicitis d.
Osteitis imperfecta
25. Burkitt's
lymphoma is due to:
a. Industrial dust b. Bacteria c. Herpes group of virus d.
Ricketsiae
26. Active
immunity can not be acquired by:
a. Exposure to infectious disease b. Inoculation with living
organisms c. Inoculation with organisms killed by heat d.
Inoculation with immune serum
27. Which
of the following has the highest Vit A content?
a. Dark green leafy vegetables b. Banana c. Ragi d. Egg
28. The
most prevalent mosquito-born viral disease in India
a. Dengue fever b. Japanese B encephalitis c. Yellow fever d.
Kyasunur forest disease
29.
Health surveillance is:
a. Collection of data b. Interpretation of data c. Monitoring
programmes d. Collection and interpreation of data
30. Exo-eryothrocytic
phase is absent in:
a. P.vivax infection b. P.malaria infection c. P.falciparum
infection d. P.ovale infection
31. One
of the following arthropods causes scabies
a. Xenopsylla b. Pediculus c. Phelbotomus d. Sarcoptes
32. The
following are internationally quarantinable diseases except
a. Malaria b. Yellow fever c. Plague d. Cholera
33. Which
one of the following has shortest incubation period:
a. Diphtheria b. German measles c. Small-pox d. Chicken pox
34. Salk
vaccine is a:
a. Killed vaccine b. Live vaccine c. Live attenuated vaccine d.
Toxoid
35. Which
antituberculous acts on rapidly multiplying bacilli?
a. Rifampicin b. Streptomycin c. Ethambutol d. INH
36. The
vitamin C is present in large amounts in:
a. Lemon b. Tomato c. Orange d. Amla (Indian goose berry) 37. DDT
acts as a:
a. Stomach poison b. Repellent c. Contact poison d. Affects
fertility
38.
'Spread' of the dispersion (of numericals)
a. Mean b. Mode c. Median d. Standard deviation
39. The
vaccine need NOT be given to boys is:
a. Measles b. German measles c. Mumps d. Small pox
40. The
main source of collection of medical statistics is:
a. Experiments b. Surveys c. Records d. All of the above.
41.
Infant mortality rate is the number of infant deaths per:
a. 100 live births in 1year b. 1000 live births in 1 year c.
Total live births in 1 year d. 1000 live births in 10 years
42. A
pictorial diagram of frequency distribution is denoted by;
a. Pictogram b. Histogram c. Pie charts d. Bar charts
43. The
best index of MCH services in a community is:
a. Maternal mortality rate b. Infant mortality rate c. Perinatal
mortality rate d. Neonatal mortality rate
44. Old
contamination of water is suggested by the presence of:
a. Nitrates b. Nitrites c. Free ammonia d. None of the above
45. One
of the following is 'biologically complete'
a. Groundnut b. Wheat c. Soyabin d. Milk
46. Pellagra
is widely prevalent in:
a. Andhra Pradesh b. Bihar c. Kashmir d. Bengal
47. The
tertiary prevention consists of:
a. Health promotion b. Health protection c. Early diagnosis and
treatment d. Rehabilitation
48. One
of the following arthropods causes scabies:
a. Xenopsylla b. Pediculus c. Phlebotomus d. Sarcoptes
49. Hospital
refuse is best treated with:
a. Sanitary land-fill b. Compositing c. Incineration d. Dumping
50. The
toxic agent in epidemic dropsy includes:
a. BOAA b. Ergot alkaloids c. Sanguinarine d. None of the above.
51. The
organism most commonly causing subacute bacterial endocarditis
is:
a. Staphylococcus b. Pneumococcus c. Betahaemolytic streptococcus
d. Alpha haemolytic streptococcus
52. Mumps
virus may cause inflammation of the:
a. Pancreas b. Ovaries c. Sublingual glands d. All of these
53. Food
poisoning caused by staphylococcus aureus due to production of:
a. Haemolysin b. Lethal toxins c. Enterotoxins d. Exotoxins
54. For
effective sterilisation in an autoclave the temperature obtained
is:
a. Ultraviolet radiation b. Either c. Phenol d. Sulphadiazine
55. Frei's
test is used in the diagnosis of:
a. Gonorrhoea b. Syphilis c. Herpes d. Lymphogranuloma venereum
56. Kyasanur
forest disease virus is transmitted by;
a. Ingestion b. Innoculation c. Arthropod d. Inhalation
57.
Tyndallisation is a method of:
a. Intermittent sterilisation b. Autoclaving c. Boiling d.
Pasteurisation
58. Complement
is:
a. An antigen b. An antibody c. Natural substance in serum d. A
reagin
59. Kala-azar
(Leishmania donavani) is transmitted by vector
a. Musca domestica b. Glossina palpalis c. Phelbotomas argintepes
d. Ornithodones mobata
60. Histoplasma
capsulatum is a:
a. Yeast fungi b. Dermatophyte c. Mycelial fungi d. Dimorphic
fungi
61. Spherical
terminal endospores are present in:
a. Clostridium welchi b. Clostridium botulinum c. Clostridium
tetani d. Clostridium sporogenes
62. Cell
mediated immunity is by;
a. T-lymphocytes b. B-lymphocytes c. Neutrophils d. Eosinophils
63. Undulant
fever (Malta fever) is caused by:
a. Brucella species b. Loefflerella species c. Pasteurella
species d. Bartonella species
64. Sterilization
by steam under pressure is done by:
a. Tyndall's chamber b. Koch's arnold steamer c. Auto clave d.
Hot air oven
65.
Pleurodynia (Bornholm's disease) is caused by:
a. Coxsackie virus b. Fungus c. Bacteria d. None
66. Weil-Felix
reaction is useful in diagnosis of:
a. Trypanosomiasis b. Rickettsial infection c. Bacterial
infection d. Viral infection
67.
Diphtheria bacillus is otherwise known as:
a. Friedlander's bacillus b. Kleb's-Loeffler's bacillus c.
Frich's bacillus d. Koch's bacillus
68. Naegler's
reaction is useful to detect:
a. Lecithinase b. Hyaluronidase c. Coagulase d. Collagenase
69.
Enterococci belongs to:
a. Group A b. Group B c. Group C & D d. Group D
70.
Bacteroides features include all, except:
a. Endogenous b. Space forming c. Forms foul smelling gas d.
Anaerobic
71. Which
of the following agents is least likely to release endogenous
histamine
a. Penicillin; b. Morphin c. Vasopressin d. Propanidid
72.
Clinical applications of ACTH include:
a. Treatment of Addison's disease b. Diagnostic agent c.
Treatment of ketosis d. Reduction of adrenal ascorbic acid
73. Atropine:
a. Was isolated in the year 1831 b. Is an alkaloid found in
Solanaceous plants c. Is an alkaloid found in Datura stramonium
d. Is very poorly absorbed from oral administration
74. Penicillin
has little or no bacterial action against
a. Meningococcal b. Resting cell c. Actively growing cells d.
Treponema pallidum
75. Extra
pyramidal symptoms are commonly met with:
a. Metoclopramide b. Phenothiazenes c. Reserpine d. All of the
above.
76.
Treatment of insomnia due to anxiety is with:
a. Morphine b. Imipramine c. Meprobamate d. Ethyl ether
77. The
drug used to correct low prothrombin level in the blood is:
a. Menadione sodium bisulfite b. Calcium gluconate c. Acetyl
salycilic acid d. Warfarin sodium
78. A
sulfonamide that is rapidly absorbed and excreted
a. Succinyl sulfathrazole b. Phthalyl sulphathiazole c.
Sulphadiazine d. Sulphamethoxy pyridazine
79. Paracetamol
is:
a. Acetophenetidin b. Phenacetin c. N-acetyl-p-aminophenol d.
Acetyl salcylic acid
80.
Emetine hydrochloride is used in:
a. Chronic intestinal amoebiasis b. Bacillary dysentery c. Round
worm infestation d. Extra-intestinal amoebiasis
81. Streptomycin
was discovered by:
a. Sir Alexander Fleming b. Sir William Dunn c. S.A.Waksman d.
Louis Pasteur
82. Cimetidine
may be useful for treating
a. Duodenal ulcer b. Reflux oesophagitis c. Gastric ulcer d. All
of the above
83. The
preferred route of administration for ferrous sulfate is:
a. Oral b. Intramuscular c. Intravenous d. Subcutaneous
84. Sulphones
are recommended in the treatment of:
a. Dysentery b. Leprosy c. Tuberculosis d. L.G.V
85. The
radical treatment of malaria is:
a. To kill exoerythrocytic phase b. To kill gametocytes c. To
kill erythrocytic phase d. None
86. Frusemide
is:
a. Sulphonyl urea derivative b. Mercurial derivative c. Carbonic
anhydrase inhibitor d. Specific aldosterone antagonist
87. Which
group of chemical structure is NOT used in epilepsy;
a. Acetyl ureas b. Barbiturates c. Hydantoins d. Tropines
88. Opisthotonus is seen in:
a. Phenothiazene over dosage b. Parkinsonism c. Potts disease d.
Spinal poliomyelitis
89. The
drug of choice for anaphylactic shock is:
a. Epinephrine b. Norepinephrine c. Histamine d. Corticosteroid
90. One
of the following drug is not hepatotoxic:
a. Rifampicin b. Chloroquine c. Tetracycline d.
Carbontetrachloride
91. The
most reliable evidence for respiration in new born child is
derived from:
(for forensic work) a. Hydrostatic test b. Breslau's test c.
Microscopic test d. Fodere's test (static test)
92. One
of the following is the best test for seminal stains:
a. Florence test b. Alkaline phosphatase test c. Acid phosphatase
test d. Precipitin test
93. Coma
and pin-point pupils are seen in poisoning due to:
a. Alcohol b. Carbolic acid c. Opium d. Parathion
94. Lucid
interval is seen in:
a. Insanity b. Syphilis c. Viral infection d. Malignant disease
95. Cadaveric
spasm affects the following muscles:
a. Voluntary b. Involuntary c. Both d. None
96. Extra-dural
haemorrhage is usually caused by a rupture of:
a. Middle meningeal artery b. Middle cerebral artery c. Anterior
cerebral artery d. Posterior cerebral artery
97. Overlaying
is a type of:
a. Smothering b. Hanging c. Strangulation d. Homicidal hanging
98. An
'AB' group parent cannot beget a child belonging to:
a. 'O' group b. 'A' group c. 'B' group d. 'AB' group
99.
Pre-auricular sulcus is useful for:
a. Determination of age b. Identification of sex c. Determination
of race d. Cause of death
100.Section
302 of Indian Penal Code is for:
a. Rape b. Murder c. Grievous hurt d. Attempt to commit suicide
**Answers
This page was updated on : 11/01/99 23:12:14 India Standard Time
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