1. Dr. Smith is interested in how the human mind processes
information. What type of psychologist is she most likely to be?
A. humanistic
B. cognitive
C. psychoanalytic
D. structuralistic
2. According to the text, thinking is what kind of event?
A. a public
B. a private
C. a linguistic
D. a spiritual
3. Cognitive science has experienced rapid growth in the past
_______ years.
A. 50
B. 35
C. 20
D. 5
4. Seth works for a large software corporation. In developing a
new word processor, Seth uses a computer program that simulates human behavior.
This type of simulation is an example of
A. linguistic relativity.
B. prototypical thinking.
C. concept formation.
D. artificial intelligence.
5. Do computers think? To answer this question it would be
appropriate to use the _______ test.
A. relativity
B. Turing
C. LAD
D. Whorf-Sapir
6. Which of the following pairs is correct?
A. serial: multiple locations
B. serial: two locations
C. parallel: one location
D. parallel: multiple locations
7. Dr. Hollinrake, who studies human memory, believes that
multiple areas of the brain operate simultaneously, in an interrelated fashion.
The connections among cognitions are referred to as
A. serial exhaustive strings.
B. self-terminating points.
C. long-term potentiations.
D. parallel distributed processing.
8. To a cognitive psychologist, a grouping of items or things
with similar characteristics is called a
A. phoneme.
B. morpheme.
C. concept.
D. hierarchy.
9. Attributes essential for membership in a category are called
_______, while attributes that most members of a class possess are called
_______.
A. concepts; prototypes
B. prototypes; concepts
C. characteristic features; defining features
D. defining features; characteristic features
10. In order to develop classifications, we
must have mental constructs called
A. propositions.
B. concepts.
C. holophrases.
D. attributes.
11. Humans and chimpanzees are both classified
as primates. The features they share in common are the _______ of the primate
concept.
A. attributes
B. prototypes
C. holotypes
D. algorithms
12. Conservative focusing is a strategy used in
A. concept formation.
B. means-end analysis.
C. grammar formation.
D. problem solving.
13. Bill was given a task in which he must
categorize insects. Part of the process involves separating relevant from
irrelevant attributes of each insect. This is a major task in
A. means-ends analysis.
B. the test-retest method.
C. learning concepts.
D. phoneme formation.
14. Which of the following is a major task in
learning a new concept?
A. determining defining and characteristic features
B. deciding which are heuristic and which are algorithmic features
C. breaking away from functional fixation
D. defining the given and goal states
15. Testing individual hypotheses, one at a
time, is a strategy used in concept formation. What is this strategy called?
A. heuristic featuring
B. the algorithmic method
C. means-ends analysis
D. conservative focusing
16. Displacement is a fundamental feature of a
language. This means that language
A. gives us the ability to talk about things that are not
actually present.
B. allows humans the ability to express emotion.
C. gives us the ability to express thoughts in different ways.
D. allows different expressions to have the same meaning.
17. Nim, the chimp who was raised like a human child,
learned sign language. What did Herbert Terrace conclude about Nim's abilities?
A. Nim learned to use language in a human manner.
B. Nim learned to produce new words and sentences.
C. Nim's ability did not go beyond reproducing language.
D. Nim's ability resembled that of a five-year-old human child.
18. What was remarkable about Sarah, the ape
who was trained to read and write with pieces of plastic?
A. she learned to use "if...then" sentences
B. she learned over five hundred word symbols
C. she created about fifty unique words
D. she could carry on a lengthy two-way conversation
19. The ability to express the same meaning in
a variety of ways is known as the _______ of language.
A. flexibility
B. creativity
C. inflection
D. heuristics
20. The word "sun" contains _______
phoneme(s).
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. no
21. The underlying representation of a sentence
refers to
A. the way a speaker structures the words.
B. the intended meaning of the speaker.
C. whether the grammar is correct.
D. the words selected to represent ideas.
22. The basic sound elements from which words
are formed are called
A. semantics.
B. phonemes.
C. constituents.
D. morphemes.
23. What is the relationship between words and
morphemes? While every word __________ morpheme(s), morphemes __________ words.
A. has many; are always
B. has at least one; are always
C. has many; are not always
D. has at least one; are not always
24. At a very early stage of language
development, children use one-word utterances that carry a great deal of
meaning. These one-word utterances are called
A. babbling.
B. holophrases.
C. telegraphic speech.
D. critical sounds.
25. During childhood, language is acquired at a
very rapid rate. Later in life, language can be acquired, but progress is
slower. What does this suggest?
A. there is a critical period for language acquisition
B. there is greater learning before language acquisition
C. there is more flexibility during the early years
D. there is synaptic inhibition in adult language centers
26. Holophrases are single-word utterances that
carry
A. no meaning.
B. little meaning.
C. great meaning.
D. many phonemes.
27. When children begin to construct two-word
sentences, they tend to omit words that have lower informational value (e.g.,
a, an, the, be). This maximizes the amount of information conveyed, even though
the utterances are small. The term used to describe this style of speech is
_______ speech.
A. holographic
B. telegraphic
C. heuristic
D. constituent
28. When is the developing organism most
sensitive and susceptible to environmental influences?
A. before a protophase
B. during the babbling period
C. after the motherese phase
D. during a critical period
29. An innate set of mechanisms and knowledge
that requires an environmental trigger defines
A. linguistic relativity.
B. holophrasic acquisition.
C. operantly learned speech.
D. language acquisition device.
30. Which of the following is TRUE regarding
nonverbal communication?
A. it is always intentional
B. it transmits information
C. it uses telegraphic speech
D. it is a form of nativism
31. The ability to learn from experience and to
adapt to your environment defines
A. reliability.
B. intelligence.
C. validity.
D. language.
32. If a child's mental age were higher than
the childs chronological age, this would mean that
A. the child is brighter than normal.
B. the child is about average.
C. the child is less intelligent than normal.
D. a mistake has occurred-this result is not possible.
33. In intelligence testing, what does WAIS
stands for?
A. Western Aged Intelligence Task
B. Wide-Ranging Aging Information Task
C. Wechsler Adult Intelligence Test
D. World Adulthood Information Test
34. Which of the following is TRUE regarding
the Stanford-Binet test of intelligence?
A. it uses the formula MA/CA to ascertain IQ
B. a failed item subtracts six months of MA
C. it is no longer used to measure intelligence
D. there are several test items for each age group
35. Test X is supposed to measure degree of
sensation-seeking. However, the correlation between the scores on test X and
the type of activities in which subjects engage was very low. This means that
test X probably has
A. low reliability.
B. low validity.
C. high reliability.
D. high validity.
36. During the development phase, a test will
often be repeated on the same group of subjects to see if their performance is
consistent from one test session to the next. This allows assessment of the
test's
A. accuracy.
B. validity.
C. reliability.
D. standardization.
37. The theory of intelligence that suggests a
type of general intelligence (g) and many types of specific intelligence (s) is
called __________ theory.
A. two-factor
B. g and s
C. multiple factor
D. culture-bias
38. In the triarchic theory of intelligence,
higher-order mental activities are referred to as
A. triads.
B. metacomponents.
C. g-factors.
D. s-factors.
39. Which of the following pairs is correct?
A. Spearman: Stanford-Binet
B. Thurstone: WAIS
C. Binet: two-factor theory
D. Sternberg: triarchic theory
40. Whose theory of intelligence, although it
received limited support, suggested that people have primary mental abilities?
A. Spearman's
B. Thurston's
C. Wechsler's
D. Sternberg's
41. Which theory of intelligence takes into
account people's ability to adapt to their environment?
A. two-factor theory
B. primary mental abilities
C. triarchic theory
D. conservative focusing
42. Which of the following sets of people tend
to have the most similar IQ test scores?
A. monozygotic twins raised apart
B. dizygotic twins raised together
C. monozygotic twins raised together
D. dizygotic twins raised apart
43. Motivation is studied by psychologists who
are concerned with the forces that move an organism to
A. think.
B. act.
C. feel.
D. die.
44. The term "motivation" is derived
from the Latin word meaning
A. to move.
B. to think.
C. to behave.
D. to feel.
45. Alva searched the kitchen for food because
he was hungry. In this case the search for food would be considered what?
A. a primary drive
B. a habit
C. an instinct
D. homeostasis
46. A drive that develops as the result of
learning and experience is known as a(n) _______ drive.
A. primary
B. meta
C. acquired
D. valence
47. The process of keeping various
physiological systems in a state of balance is referred to as
A. self-actualization.
B. ethnological balance.
C. set point.
D. homeostasis.
48. Students approach a test with varying
levels of anxiety. According to the Yerkes-Dodson Law, which students are most
likely to perform best?
A. calm, relaxed students
B. highly anxious students
C. moderately anxious students
D. students with high self-esteem
49. Of the terms below, which is associated
with expectancy theory?
A. homeostasis
B. primary drive
C. acquired drives
D. valence
50. Drive reduction theory does not account for
why people
A. eat when they are hungry.
B. climb mountains.
C. engage in sexual behavior.
D. wash their bodies.
51. The Yerkes-Dodson Law suggests that
performance is _______ when arousal is _______.
A. best; low
B. worst; moderate
C. best; moderate
D. best; high
52. According to the expectancy theory, a
turkey dinner would have a _______ to a hungry person.
A. low a-process
B. high b-process
C. low valence
D. high valence
53. In Murray's classification of needs, what
kind of needs involve higher cognitive functions and social behavior?
A. physiological
B. hierarchical
C. b-process
D. secondary
54. Scott has not satisfied his basic needs.
According to the hierarchy of needs, which of the following is TRUE?
A. Scott is poor
B. Scott cannot be hungry
C. Scott has reached self-actualization
D. Scott has no achievement motivation
55. Jack used his imagination to describe the
scenes in a series of pictures containing ambiguous figures. What test was the
psychotherapist using to uncover Jack's motives?
A. the hierarchy of needs test
B. the MOMS test
C. the Thematic Apperception Test
D. the Yerkes-Dodson Test
56. Experiments using electrical brain
stimulation indicate that reward centers are
A. mainly concentrated in the cerebellum.
B. distributed throughout the brain.
C. found only in the hypothalamus.
D. dependent on the release of CCK.
57. Rats can be trained to press a lever to
deliver electrical stimulation to their own hypothalamus. Since rats cannot talk,
why do researchers think rats find this rewarding?
A. stimulated rats fall asleep more quickly than unstimulated
rats
B. some rats would rather press for stimulation than eat
C. stimulated rat mothers pay more attention to their pups
D. stimulated rats spend more time grooming than unstimulated rats
58. CCK is a hormone that is released by the
small intestine. What happened when laboratory animals were injected with CCK
during a meal?
A. they became thirsty
B. they stopped eating
C. they ate until they became obese
D. they ate more than noninjected animals
59. Lesion studies have implicated the
ventromedial hypothalamus with _______ and the lateral hypothalamus with
_______.
A. eating; drinking
B. drinking; eating
C. satiety; hunger
D. hunger; satiety
60. Which theory of obesity explains that
people overeat to reduce anxiety?
A. drive reduction
B. sensation seeking
C. opponent process
D. emotional arousal
61. Lesion studies indicate that which part of
the brain is involved in hunger?
A. pituitary
B. pons
C. lateral hypothalamus
D. dorsal thalamus
62. Joan is an adult who weighs eighty-six
pounds. She fears gaining weight and feels that she is too chubby. What
disorder does Joan most likely have?
A. bulimia nervosa
B. obesitia nervosa
C. anorexia nervosa
D. amnesia nervosa
63. After the testes are removed from a male
rat, it will mate if injected with
A. estrogen.
B. CCK.
C. testosterone.
D. endorphins.
64. Research indicates that gender roles may
develop in children as early as age
A. six months.
B. eighteen months.
C. three years.
D. five years.
65. Attitudes and behaviors that a culture
deems appropriate for each sex are called
A. sex symbols.
B. gender identities.
C. gender roles.
D. sex rules.
66. When estrogen is removed from a female
rat's bloodstream, what happens?
A. the animal becomes male
B. the rat mounts inanimate objects
C. the animal loses interest in sex behavior
D. the animal seeks sources of estrogen in nature
67. Why is the GSR used in studies of sensation
seeking?
A. it stimulates the autonomic nervous system
B. it detects cognitively-based motivations
C. it detects arousal of the autonomic nervous system
D. it detects the presence of emotionality
68. Which theory of acquired motivation offers
a good explanation for some of the behaviors exhibited by sensation seekers?
A. opponent process
B. cognitive-physiological
C. James-Lange
D. drive reduction
69. Which person below would most likely rate
high in sensation-seeking motivation?
A. a gourmet cook
B. a skydiver
C. a magician
D. a boat captain
70. The Sensation Seeking Scale is a test used
to measure what?
A. the importance of stimulation
B. the sensitivity of sensory receptors
C. the strength and intensity of emotions
D. the transduction of sensation into perception
71. The notion that people want to be
independent and enhance their self-esteem is referred to as
A. physiological need.
B. safety need.
C. belongingness.
D. need for achievement.
72. In cultures that value family unity above
individual achievement, highly motivated individuals are likely to score
_______ on the TAT.
A. high
B. moderate
C. low
D. off the scale
73. Physiological changes accompanied by a true
subjective change in "feeling" define
A. a need.
B. a drive.
C. motivation.
D. emotion.
74. The researcher S. Thomkins believes there
are _______ primary emotions.
A. six
B. nine
C. twelve
D. twenty-four
75. On the circle of emotions, wedges across
from each other are
A. related emotions.
B. identical emotions.
C. opposite emotions.
D. complimentary emotions.
76. According to research, which of the
following is TRUE about emotions?
A. Sadness cannot be covered by a smile.
B. People from all cultures smile when they are happy.
C. Only Westernized cultures smile when they are happy.
D. Some cultures frown when they are happy.
77. In a visual cliff experiment using
one-year-old infants, what percentage of babies cross the cliff when their
mothers display a fearful expression?
A. 0
B. 10
C. 25
D. 40
78. How well can parents detect the emotional
expressions of joy, interest, distress, and surprise in an infant?
A. poorly
B. relatively well
C. not at all
D. only with assistance
79. Which theory of emotions suggests that a
person's thoughts and physiological arousal interact and influence each other?
A. Cannon-Bard
B. James-Lange
C. facial feedback
D. two-factor
80. The idea that emotions originate in the
lower brain and then activate other parts of the nervous system is called the
_______ theory of emotions.
A. James-Lange
B. facial feedback
C. Cannon-Bard
D. cognitive-physiological
81. According to the James-Lange theory of
emotion, when would fear occur, in relation to a fearful behavior?
A. in an unpredictable fashion
B. before the behavior occurs
C. after the behavior occurs
D. while the behavior is occurring
82. Which of the examples below is consistent
with the James-Lange theory of emotion?
A. A child runs from a growling dog and realizes he is frightened
once he has jumped over a fence to safety.
B. Mr. Jones thinks a joke is funny, so he decides to laugh and
applaud the comedian on stage.
C. Sue is frightened of bees and usually runs into the house when
she sees one in her yard.
D. A man is angry at the government and decides to write a protest
letter to his congressman.
83. You see a grizzly bear in the forest. You
start to run away. After running a while, you realize you are really afraid of
grizzly bears. Which emotion theory supports this view?
A. opponent process
B. James-Lange
C. Cannon
D. cognitive-physiological
84. According to the James-Lange theory,
emotion occurs _______ physiological reactions.
A. after
B. before
C. simultaneously with
D. without regard to
85. When a person becomes aroused, the
two-factor theory of emotion would predict that the person's emotional
experience would be based on the
A. activation of lower brain areas.
B. sensation of physiological change.
C. situation in which the arousal was felt.
D. facial muscles that were stimulated.
86. Research on how emotional memories are
formed has focused on the study of which emotion?
A. happiness
B. sadness
C. fear
D. hope
87. In experiments with rats, what happens when
a sudden sound is repeatedly paired with footshock?
A. the footshock becomes a conditioned fear response
B. the sound becomes a conditioned stimulus for fear
C. the rat's fear response diminishes
D. the rat's emotional memory is extinguished
88. When a conditioned fear response is
extinguished, what happens to the emotional memory?
A. the emotional memory is erased
B. the emotional memory becomes an unconditioned stimulus
C. the emotional memory is replaced with calmness
D. the emotional memory becomes dormant
89. Which brain area appears to initiate a fear
response?
A. amygdala
B. hypothalamus
C. pituitary
D. neocortex
90. Which of the following is TRUE regarding
the formation of emotional memories?
A. conscious awareness is not necessary
B. they are mainly declarative in nature
C. they are formed by the hippocampus
D. cortical processing is necessary for their formation
91. The theory of emotion that BEST explains
the fear response is the _______ theory.
A. Cannon-Bard
B. James-Lange
C. two-factor
D. expectancy
92. Cognitive appraisal of emotions by different
cultures appears to be
A. similar, in general.
B. very different, in general.
C. only different for pleasantness.
D. only similar for fear.
93. The emotion of disgust may have evolved for
what reason?
A. to discourage mating with filthy partners
B. to weaken the emotion of anger
C. to compliment the emotion of fear
D. to avoid poisonous foods
94. Dr. Winters showed a negative political ad
to people aged 18, 28, 38, and 48. Afterward, he compared how each age group
viewed the political candidate in the ad. What kind of study did Dr. Winters
conduct?
A. lifespan
B. cross-sectional
C. multidimensional
D. longitudinal
95. Longitudinal study is to cross-sectional
study as _______ is to _______.
A. different groups; same group
B. same group; different groups
C. lifespan; development
D. development; lifespan
96. Dr. Summers wants to know if age is a
factor in learning how to use a computer. What kind of study should Dr. Summers
design?
A. co-dependent
B. critical period
C. longitudinal
D. cross-sectional
97. Erik Erikson's theory of development was
most influenced by the _______ approach.
A. psychoanalytic
B. behavioral
C. cognitive
D. humanistic
98. Which approach to the study of human
development is associated with Jean Piaget?
A. psychoanalytic
B. behavioral
C. humanistic
D. cognitive-structural
99. When developmental problems in the
classroom are analyzed, which perspective is usually MOST influential?
A. psychoanalytic
B. behavioral
C. humanistic
D. structuralist
100. What kind of study is used to learn more
about the role of genetics in behavior?
A. longitudinal
B. cross-sectional
C. heterozygous
D. adoption
101. The basic unit of heredity is called a
A. chromosome.
B. gene.
C. heterozygote.
D. cell.
102. How many chromosomes does a human child
receive from its mother?
A. 12
B. 16
C. 23
D. 26
103. A mother consumed large amounts of alcohol
while pregnant. Now her child is developmentally delayed and hyperactive. The
child most likely has
A. Korsakoff's disease.
B. fetal alcohol syndrome.
C. hydroencephaly.
D. Thalidamide poisoning.
104. Why is it important that pregnant women
should avoid severe stress?
A. Stress can cause DNA to mutate.
B. The mother's stress hormones can cross the placental barrier.
C. Stress hormones have been linked with mental retardation.
D. Stress hormones have been linked with a decrease in fetal
activity.
105. Jeni is a happy baby. She smiles whenever her
parents show her attention. Therefore, her parents give her a lot of attention.
This is an example of how
A. attention can be misdirected.
B. a critical period influences attention.
C. individuals shape their own environments.
D. parents can be permissive and indulgent.
106. The debate over the relative strengths of
genetic and environmental influences is part of the controversy known as the
A. central-peripheral issue.
B. humanist-behaviorist controversy.
C. structuralist-functionalist debate.
D. nature-nurture issue.
107. What determines the timing of critical
periods?
A. genetics
B. caregivers
C. social environment
D. moral upbringing
108. How does genetic variation between races
compare to genetic variation within a race?
A. the differences between and within races are equal
B. the variation between races is greater
C. the variation within races is greater
D. the variation within races is negligible
109. The Lamaze method of childbirth relies upon
the aid of
A. anesthetic drugs.
B. the father.
C. cesarean section.
D. hormones.
110. Which birth technique employs the use of
relaxation, neuromuscular control, and breathing techniques?
A. the nature-nurture method
B. the medical model
C. the Lamaze method
D. the cesarean method
111. If you stroke the sole of a young infant's
foot, its toes reflexively curl upward. This reflex is known as the _______
reflex.
A. rooting
B. Babinski
C. pacing
D. plantar
112. Why is an infant's voluntary motor
coordination poor at birth?
A. The motor areas of the cortex are not well myelinated.
B. The motor areas of the cortex are only at 75 percent neural
capacity.
C. The neurons in the motor areas have no dendrites.
D. The neurons of motor cortex are not yet attached to the spinal
column.
113. In a study of three-day-old infants' sensory
abilities, what happened to infants' pacifier sucking when their mother's voice
was played on a tape recorder?
A. they stopped sucking to listen
B. infants sucked less to their mother's voice than to other
sounds
C. their sucking patterns changed in order to hear more of their
mother's voice
D. there was no change in sucking compared to other sounds
114. Levels of positive and negative emotionality
are used to measure what in infants?
A. temperament
B. attachment
C. conservation
D. egocentrism
115. Dr. Mills measures infants' activity levels,
how often they cry, and how often the infants laugh during a one-hour test
period. What is Dr. Mills trying to determine?
A. conservation
B. egocentrism
C. temperament
D. accommodation
116. What might indicate that temperament has a
genetic component?
A. Family interactions do not affect temperament.
B. Individual differences appear very early in life.
C. Temperament is very unstable until age two years.
D. Infants often model their mother's temperament.
117. Which of the following is the close bond
formed between an infant and its caregiver?
A. attachment
B. assimilation
C. accommodation
D. abstraction
118. How is attachment assessed in humans?
A. Developmental Screening Exam
B. Lamaze Attachment Sequence
C. Egocentrism Scale
D. Strange Situations Test
119. When infant monkeys are given surrogate
mothers made of wire and cloth, they display a strong preference for the
A. wire mother.
B. cloth mother.
C. wire mother when fearful and the cloth mother when happy.
D. wire mother when male and the cloth mother when female.
120. Anna is a securely attached child. If Anna
and her mother are together in a room with a playgroup, how will Anna react if
her mother leaves the room?
A. she will decrease exploration
B. she will cry violently
C. she will actively misbehave
D. she will be less inhibited
121. Object permanence is most often accomplished
during which period of development?
A. preoperational
B. sensorimotor
C. concrete operational
D. formal operational
122. Which of the following children is most
clearly manifesting egocentrism? A child who
A. does not recognize a bicycle when it's turned upside down.
B. thinks all round objects are balls.
C. believes her father must know the color of a bike she dreamed
about.
D. thinks little people live in the television set.
123. A child who understands that the volume of a
liquid remains constant even though the shape of the container is changed is
said to understand the principle of _______.
A. object permanence
B. reversibility
C. egocentrism
D. conservation
124. According to Piaget, when does the formal
operational stage develop?
A. directly after the preoperational stage
B. directly after the concrete operational stage
C. just before the concrete operational stage
D. just before the sensorimotor stage
125. A child who is worried about doing things
because he or she fears disapproval has failed to successfully resolve
Erikson's crisis of
A. trust versus mistrust.
B. autonomy versus shame and doubt.
C. initiative versus guilt.
D. industry versus inferiority.
126. At two and a half years of age, Jane can go
to the bathroom by herself, feed herself, and put on some of her own clothes.
Erikson might conclude that she has a sense of
A. autonomy.
B. industry.
C. accommodation.
D. moral realism.
127. Which of the following parenting styles is
associated with immaturity and low leadership ability in children?
A. authoritarian
B. authoritative
C. permissive
D. pampering
128. A child has a hard time talking with his
parents. He feels all they do is punish him, tell him what to do and remind him
he should be respectful. This is most indicative of a(n) _______ parenting
style.
A. permissive-indulgent
B. authoritative
C. permissive-indifferent
D. authoritarian
129. Some parents spend a lot of time with their
children but place no demands and make no attempt to control their behavior.
These children often grow up with absolutely no self-control. This is
indicative of the __________ parenting style.
A. authoritarian and indulgent
B. authoritative and indifferent
C. permissive and indifferent
D. permissive and indulgent
130. What importance do peers have in early and
middle childhood?
A. They help prevent the development of moral autonomy.
B. They are of prime importance to the development of
assimilation.
C. They are a vehicle by which initiative versus guilt is
resolved.
D. They serve as a comparison group for abilities and
accomplishments.
131. Three-year-old Glen and four-year-old Craig
have been playing trucks together. According to research, how is Glen most
likely to react if Chris, a three-year-old, asks to join in?
A. Glen would joyfully agree that Chris join in.
B. Glen would tell Craig to get lost.
C. Glen would tell Chris no, he can't play.
D. Glen would form a play concept called accommodation.
132. Bob accidentally knocked over his brother
Ken's model car and broke it. Ken became angry and intentionally broke one of
Bob's toys. When Bob's father learned what happened, he insisted that Bob pay
to replace the model car, and he punished Ken as well. According to Piaget,
this father is functioning on the basis of
A. moral realism.
B. moral autonomy.
C. universal ethical principles.
D. preconventional morality.
133. Development of guilty feelings, a sense of
right and wrong, and empathy for others all change as a child grows. These
particular changes are components of _______ development.
A. emotional
B. social
C. moral
D. cognitive
134. What is one of the primary accomplishments of
puberty?
A. stabilization of personality
B. sexual maturation
C. generativity
D. intimacy
135. How do you know a child has entered
adolescence?
A. when androgenization has ended
B. when puberty has begun
C. when gender identity begins to develop
D. when identity versus doubt is resolved
136. Hormonally induced changes in the penis,
testes, ovaries, and fallopian tubes are considered _______ sexual
characteristics.
A. genital
B. primary
C. secondary
D. tertiary
137. Gender is determined by the twenty-third pair
of chromosomes. Women have an _______ combination and men have an _______
combination.
A. XX; XY
B. XY; XX
C. XX; XO
D. OX; XX
138. Transsexuals believe they are trapped in the
wrong body for their sex. For example, a person with male genitals might think
he is really meant to be female. In this instance, the body fails to match the
person's
A. sexual differentiation.
B. sexual maturation.
C. hormonal secretions.
D. gender identity.
139. Each parent contributes a(n) _______ sex
chromosome to an offspring.
A. single
B. double
C. O
D. Y
140. The process by which the fetus develops into
either a male or female is called
A. sexual classification.
B. sexual differentiation.
C. sex typing.
D. identity transition.
141. What would happen to a normal embryo if it
had an XY chromosome pattern?
A. ambiguous reproductive organs would develop
B. potential male tissue would form into male organs
C. normal female organs would develop
D. abnormal male organs would develop
142. Where do adolescents acquire most of their
knowledge about sexual matters?
A. friends
B. parents
C. the media
D. school
143. In general, which of the following is true
about adolescents who are sexually active?
A. they are promiscuous
B. they engage in serial monogamy
C. they do not intend to be faithful
D. they do not believe in love
144. Joseph is an adolescent who has had many
sexual partners. Joe's promiscuity is most likely related to what?
A. a belief in serial monogamy
B. other risky sexual behavior
C. a belief that sex equals love
D. a fear of homosexuality
145. During the identity versus identity confusion
stage of human development, the primary concerns of adolescents are
A. how moral decisions will be made.
B. developing close, loving, long-term relationships.
C. focused on searching for a role.
D. to reflect on the accomplishments of life.
146. During adolescence, the foreclosure status is
more likely to be associated with adolescents who are
A. more willing to involve their parents in important decisions.
B. less willing to involve their parents in important decisions.
C. more open to external influences than most children.
D. less critical of alternative life-styles than their peers.
147. A feeling of uncertainty often occurs in the
transition stage between childhood and adulthood. Erikson called this transition
period
A. puberty.
B. transitional ambiguity.
C. moratorium.
D. postadolescent menarche.
148. Some days Ryan is independent and does not
want his parents involved in his activities. On other days, he feels insecure
and depends on his parents for support. Ryan's behavior is typical of someone
who is facing the crisis Erikson called
A. generativity versus self-absorption.
B. identity versus identity diffusion.
C. concerns about intimacy.
D. concerns about sexual orientation.
149. What stage of identity status are most
adolescents in when they enter college?
A. identity achievement
B. authoritarianism
C. foreclosure
D. identity solidification
150. The attitudes of adolescents appear to be
MOST influenced by
A. parents.
B. teachers.
C. siblings.
D. peers.
151. When do most men become established in a
career?
A. in their 20s
B. by the end of the early 30s
C. in their late 30s
D. in their early 40s
152. According to the medical model, what is the
cause of abnormal behavior?
A. improper environmental adjustments
B. stress and anxiety
C. internal physical causes
D. antisocial behaviors
153. Those who follow the medical model view
abnormal behavior as a type of
A. illness.
B. habit.
C. wrongdoing.
D. instinct.
154. Pinel believed mental patients should be
_______ instead of _______.
A. treated; punished
B. punished; treated
C. exorcised; tortured
D. tortured; exorcised
155. What effect did the scientific revolution
have on the prevailing view of the causes for mental disorders?
A. they were viewed as psychoses instead of manias
B. they were viewed as illnesses instead of the result of sinful
behavior
C. they were viewed as socially acceptable behaviors instead of as
diseases
D. they were viewed as sinful acts instead of supernatural
phenomenon
156. In the latter half of the 19th century, the
effort to classify and categorize mental disorders was led by
A. Hippocrates.
B. Pinel.
C. Chinese physicians.
D. German physicians.
157. Who demonstrated the unreliability of
diagnosing and identifying mental disorders?
A. Bleuler
B. Rosenhan
C. Pinel
D. Horney
158. When a person's behavior is considered
abnormal because society says the behavior is unacceptable, the _______ model
is in use.
A. maladaptive
B. subjective
C. statistical
D. normative
159. Why do some professionals prefer to use the
maladaptive definition of abnormality?
A. Because it describes the ideal personality.
B. Because it relates behavior to an individual's own
circumstances.
C. Because it gives individuals a say in their diagnosis.
D. Because maladaptive behavior is considered inflexible.
160. When a behavior is considered abnormal based
on the fact that it rarely occurs in the general population, the _______
definition of abnormality is being used.
A. ideal
B. statistical
C. maladaptive
D. subjective
161. What is the professional judgment of
abnormality commonly based upon?
A. a normative model
B. a statistical model
C. the maladaptive model
D. a combination of standards
162. Frank has no troubling behavioral symptoms,
yet his psychotherapist believes he is abnormal because he has not reached his
full potential. Which definition of abnormal behavior is Frank's therapist
using?
A. subjective
B. statistical
C. normative
D. ideal
163. Which definition of abnormal behavior is
preferred by professionals because it is flexible and focuses on behavior
relative to the individual in question?
A. ideal
B. maladaptive
C. subjective
D. statistical
164. You happen to hear two psychologists
discussing a recent client. They refer to the DSM. What general area of
behavior were the psychologists most likely talking about?
A. abnormal behavior
B. learning and memory
C. sensation and perception
D. motivation and emotion
165. The view of mental disorders in DSM-III and
DSM-III-R differs from the view in DSM-IV because DSM-III and DSM-III-R were
based on
A. observed behaviors.
B. inferred traits.
C. psychoanalytic theory.
D. nonmedical approaches.
166. One of the criticisms of the DSM-IV is that
A. it does not recommend treatments for disorders.
B. it uses a multiaxial system.
C. it is not very useful in clinical practice.
D. the definitions of mental disorders are vague.
167. A patient was seen by two different mental
health professionals who both use the DSM-IV. Why was the patient given a
different diagnosis by each professional?
A. Symptoms of some disorders may overlap in the DSM-IV.
B. The DSM-IV diagnosis can differ based on the context of a
patient's behavior.
C. The patient probably suffered from an Axis I disorder.
D. The patient must not have exhibited comorbidity.
168. Stroke is an example of what type of
disorder?
A. conversion disorder
B. normative disorder
C. organic brain disorder
D. somatoform disorder
169. Which of the following is most likely an
acute disorder of chronic alcohol use?
A. Korsakov's psychosis
B. delirium tremens
C. general paresis
D. presenile dementia
170. What do Alzheimer's disease, presenile
dementia, Parkinson's disease, and Korsakov's psychosis have in common?
A. they are all caused by chronic alcohol abuse
B. they are all acute organic brain disorders
C. they all involve damage to brain cells
D. they all can be reversed if treated early
171. Margaret hears voices on the TV even when it
is off and believes unscrupulous businessmen are attempting to steal from her.
Margaret's symptoms most closely resemble
A. an anxiety disorder.
B. schizophrenia.
C. somatoform disorder.
D. a substance-use disorder.
172. A delusion is a(n)
A. false belief.
B. false sensory experience.
C. hallucination.
D. extrasensory perception.
173. When someone is known to be schizophrenic but
his or her symptoms do not fall neatly into one of the main types of
schizophrenia, he or she is classified as a(n) _______ schizophrenic.
A. disorganized
B. catatonic
C. paranoid
D. undifferentiated
174. Schizophrenics commonly show inappropriate
emotional responses. A common symptom is the blunting or flattening of emotion.
This component of schizophrenia is referred to as
A. loose associations.
B. neologisms.
C. affective disorder.
D. catatonia.
175. The diathesis-stress model is a theory about
the causes of which mental disorder?
A. schizophrenia
B. bipolar disorder
C. panic disorder
D. gender identity disorder
176. In terms of mood disorders, the opposite of
depression is
A. anxiety.
B. mania.
C. antidepression.
D. bipolar.
177. Jack is able to keep the family going, but he
is also sad, pessimistic, and a bit suicidal. Jack's problem is most likely
A. schizophrenia.
B. bipolar disorder.
C. hypomania.
D. dysthymia.
178. Motor tension, hyperactivity, and
apprehensive expectations are all characteristics of _______ disorders.
A. mood
B. schizophrenic
C. dissociative
D. anxiety
179. To be classified as having generalized
anxiety disorder, a person must exhibit symptoms for at least
A. one day.
B. one week.
C. one month.
D. six months.
180. Harold almost always feels tense and uneasy,
but cannot explain the source of his uncomfortable feelings. He would most
likely be described as having
A. obsessive-compulsive disorder.
B. a schizotypal personality.
C. hypochondriasis.
D. generalized anxiety disorder.
181. Although Mary has become blind, there is no
organic, physical basis for her vision loss. If psychological factors are the
root of the problem, she would have
A. anxiety disorder.
B. conversion disorder.
C. hypochondriasis.
D. dysfunctional disorder.
182. What was once known as multiple personality
disorder is now known as
A. hypochondriasis.
B. dissociative identity disorder.
C. personality disorder.
D. conversion disorder.
183. Someone with a fetish is sexually aroused by
A. pain.
B. inanimate objects.
C. delivery of pain.
D. watching others.
184. What is the common theme between sexual
sadism and sexual masochism?
A. using children for sexual arousal
B. suffering for sexual arousal
C. using inanimate objects for sexual arousal
D. watching others for sexual arousal
185. At what stage of development are personality
disorders usually manifested?
A. infancy
B. early childhood
C. late childhood
D. adolescence
186. Emily has a personality disorder. Her
behavior is often dramatic, emotional, and erratic. Into which cluster of
disorders does her behavior fit?
A. cluster A
B. cluster B
C. cluster C
D. cluster D
187. People who behave in odd or eccentric ways
would most likely be diagnosed with which personality disorder?
A. antisocial
B. schizoid
C. dependent
D. histrionic
188. When you evaluate your thoughts, emotions,
and behaviors against someone else's, you are using
A. social comparison.
B. conformity rules.
C. the primacy effect.
D. cognitive dissonance.
189. Which field of psychology studies how people
affect each other?
A. social
B. cognitive
C. therapeutic
D. developmental
190. When people make judgments about themselves,
others, and the world around them based on how their experiences relate to
those of other people, they are using the process called
A. social comparison.
B. personality typing.
C. attribution.
D. attraction.
191. The study of group interactions,
relationships, perceptions, and attitudes is the study of _______ psychology.
A. behavioral
B. social
C. cognitive
D. group
192. The goal of social comparison is
A. to eliminate the diffusion of responsibility.
B. to eliminate dissonant attitudes and behaviors.
C. to enhance already existing egotistical attitudes.
D. self-evaluation and identify verification.
193. Social perception involves the process of
A. developing disparate attitudes and beliefs.
B. forming opinions about others.
C. conformity and obedience to peer groups.
D. overcoming ethnocentrism within a culture.
194. Judgments of other people involve the process
of social
A. perception.
B. groupthink.
C. dissonance.
D. conformity.
195. The study of social perception examines how a
person
A. conforms to a group.
B. judges others' behavior.
C. diffuses responsibility.
D. helps others in need.
196. A psychologist studying how we form opinions
of others is interested in
A. impression formation.
B. altruistic behavior.
C. obedience to authority.
D. groupthink.
197. Asch carried out an experiment giving people
a fictitious description of someone that varied the position of the words
"warm" and "cold." Asch found that
A. the impressions formed varied with the location of these
adjectives.
B. the location of adjectives influenced the impressions of men
but not of women.
C. the location of adjectives had no influence on the impressions
formed.
D. subjects could not form impressions on the basis of mere
adjective descriptions.
198. To look for a cause of a behavior is to
attempt to _______ that behavior, according to social psychologists.
A. collectivize
B. diffuse
C. conform
D. attribute
199. If you are interested in understanding why
things happen, attribution theory suggests that you will
A. look for causes.
B. blame others for your problems.
C. change your mind about people.
D. reevaluate each situation.
200. Sometimes people tend to blame problems on
themselves rather than on the situation, according to _______ theory.
A. dissonance
B. behavior
C. conformity
D. attribution
201. Joe thinks that the only reason he did poorly
on a test is that it contained all trick questions. What type of attribution is
Joe using here?
A. internal attribution bias
B. the self-serving bias
C. dissonance reduction
D. stereotypic thinking
202. Which of the following most clearly
illustrates an internal attribution?
A. John believes his brother plays baseball to impress women.
B. Harry believes John works only to pay the bills.
C. Sara believes Bill cooks because he loves it and has a talent
for it.
D. Tim deliberately scores lower on tests to avoid ridicule from
his peers.
203. According to the actor-observer bias, we tend
to see our own behavior as _______ caused and other's behavior as _______
caused.
A. externally; internally
B. internally; externally
C. externally; externally
D. internally; internally
204. The primary difference between companionate
love and romantic love is
A. deep care.
B. sexuality.
C. compassion.
D. the desire to be near.
205. One view of romantic love describes it in
terms of the rights and obligations of the participants. In this view, love is
basically a
A. displaced sex drive.
B. way of obtaining emotional fulfillments.
C. social role.
D. self-fulfilling prophecy.
206. What area within social psychology deals with
how people's beliefs, attitudes, and actions are affected by others?
A. collective behavior
B. interpersonal attraction
C. social comparison
D. social influence
207. Which of the following is an important
component of how messages can become persuasive?
A. the time of day
B. level of persistence
C. the actual message
D. the proper context
208. Opinion leaders sometimes act as a vital
communication link by gathering information from the media and dispensing it to
peers individually. This pattern is referred to as the
A. halo effect.
B. implicit credibility pattern.
C. two-step flow of communication.
D. diffusion of responsibility.
209. Milk is Beth's favorite beverage, and she has
been drinking three glasses a day for the last forty years. Which of the
following news headlines would create the greatest dissonance in Beth?
A. Most Americans stop their regular consumption of milk in
adolescence.
B. Steady milk consumption dramatically increases the risk of
heart attack.
C. Children tend to drink a pint of milk each day and increase
that intake as they age.
D. Milk is more costly per ounce than soda or beer, but it is
better for you.
210. The Japanese people known as the Eta are
treated negatively by other Japanese. The Eta are victims of
A. collective behavior.
B. conformity.
C. obedience.
D. prejudice.
211. Sometimes we have negative attitudes about
people because they are different from ourselves in race, sex, religion, etc.
What kind of attitudes are these?
A. tokenized
B. stereotypical
C. prejudicial
D. normalized
212. Broad generalizations about people in a
particular group are called
A. deindividuations.
B. stereotypes.
C. tokens.
D. prejudices.
213. Bill thinks stereotypically about foreigners,
disliking them without making any efforts to befriend them. Bill is
demonstrating
A. reactance.
B. prejudice.
C. dissonance.
D. displacement.
214. You are more likely to render assistance to a
victim in an emergency when
A. you are alone.
B. a small number of people are present.
C. a crowd is present.
D. the victim is an older male.
215. A number of researchers have studied the role
of frustration in revolutions and warfare. The conclusion suggested by this
research is that frustration
A. is not important as a determinant of war but plays a
significant role in revolutions.
B. is positively correlated with both revolutions and warfare.
C. plays no role in either revolutions or warfare.
D. is an important determinant of revolutions but not warfare.
216. The original frustration-aggression theory
stated that _______ always leads to _______.
A. aggression; frustration
B. frustration; aggression
C. authority; obedience
D. obedience; authority
217. When an authority figure gives you specific
instructions and you follow them to the letter, you are displaying
A. attribution.
B. obedience.
C. dissonance.
D. altruism.
218. Although Jack is not a registered voter, he
subscribes to many of the publications of the Republican Party and identifies
with the party on many issues. For Jack, the Republicans constitute a(n)
_______ group.
A. ascribed
B. primary
C. reference
D. socio-emotional
219. Bicycle racers and children winding fishing
reels do better in competition than when they perform alone. This improved
performance is attributed to
A. social facilitation.
B. deindividuation.
C. collective behavior.
D. cohesiveness.
220. Social loafing is most similar to which of
the following topics in social psychology?
A. cognitive dissonance
B. diffusion of responsibility
C. collective behavior
D. antisocial behavior
221. Aronson and Mills carried out an experiment
in which subjects had to undergo initiations of varying severity to enter a
group. Based on this study, the group with _______ was most attractive to
subjects.
A. the mildest initiation
B. a moderate initiation
C. the most severe initiation
D. the most subjects, regardless of initiation
222. Norms are developed through the process of
A. self-reflection.
B. deindividuation.
C. group membership.
D. groupthink.
223. When Brenda showed up at her supervisor's
party, she noticed she had dressed rather formally, and everyone else had
dressed casually. She quickly went home, changed, and returned. Brenda's
behavior is best explained by
A. deindividuation.
B. conformity pressure.
C. disinhibition.
D. collective behavior.
224. Mary, who admires a famous rock singer,
begins to actually dress, behave, and copy the mannerisms of her idol. This
type of conformity is an example of
A. compliance.
B. identification.
C. deindividuation.
D. internalization.
225. Under what circumstances does conformity
occur?
A. lack of motivation
B. unclear personality
C. pressure from others
D. low ethnocentrism
226. When access to resources is limited, large
groups can become disorganized in competing for the resources, resulting in
A. collective obedience.
B. social loafing.
C. a risky shift.
D. panic.
1 B
2 B
3 C
4 D
5 B
6 D
7 D
8 C
9 D
10 B
11 A
12 A
13 C
14 A
15 D
16 A
17 C
18 A
19 B
20 C
21 B
22 B
23 D
24 C
25 A
26 C
27 B
28 D
29 D
30 B
31 B
32 A
33 C
34 D
35 B
36 C
37 A
38 B
39 D
40 B
41 C
42 C
43 B
44 A
45 B
46 C
47 D
48 C
49 D
50 B
51 C
52 D
53 D
54 D
55 C
56 B
57 B
58 B
59 C
60 D
61 C
62 C
63 C
64 B
65 C
66 C
67 C
68 A
69 B
70 A
71 D
72 C
73 D
74 B
75 C
76 B
77 A
78 B
79 D
80 C
81 C
82 A
83 B
84 A
85 C
86 C
87 B
88 D
89 A
90 A
91 A
92 A
93 D
94 B
95 B
96 D
97 A
98 D
99 B
100 D
101 B
102 C
103 B
104 B
105 C
106 D
107 A
108 C
109 B
110 C
111 B
112 A
113 C
114 A
115 C
116 B
117 A
118 D
119 B
120 A
121 B
122 C
123 D
124 B
125 C
126 A
127 C
128 D
129 D
130 D
131 C
132 B
133 C
134 B
135 B
136 B
137 A
138 D
139 A
140 B
141 B
142 C
143 B
144 B
145 C
146 A
147 C
148 B
149 C
150 D
151 A
152 C
153 A
154 A
155 B
156 D
157 B
158 D
159 B
160 B
161 D
162 D
163 B
164 A
165 A
166 C
167 A
168 C
169 B
170 C
171 B
172 A
173 D
174 C
175 A
176 B
177 D
178 D
179 D
180 D
181 B
182 B
183 B
184 B
185 D
186 B
187 B
188 A
189 A
190 A
191 B
192 D
193 B
194 A
195 B
196 A
197 A
198 D
199 A
200 D
201 B
202 C
203 A
204 B
205 C
206 D
207 C
208 C
209 B
210 D
211 C
212 B
213 B
214 A
215 B
216 B
217 B
218 C
219 A
220 B
221 C
222 C
223 B
224 B
225 C
226 D