Block 4 Exam
Aviation Prep International
Correspondence Academy
Supplies Required: Gleim's FAA Written Exam Guide (8th Edition)
Instructions: Same as Block 3
Questions for the Block 4 Exam begin on page 101 of chapter 4.
1. With respect to the certification of airman, which is a category of aircraft?
2. With respect to the certification of airman, which is a class of aircraft?
3. With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft?
4. With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a class of aircraft?
5. The definition of nighttime is...
6. An ATC clearance provides...
7. Which V-speed represents maximum flap extended speed?
8. Which V-speed represents maximum landing gear extended speed?
9. Vno is defined as the...
10. Which V-speed represents maneuvering speed?
11. Vso is defined as the...
12. Which would provide the greatest gain of altitude in the shortest distance during climb after takeoff?
13. After takeoff, which airspeed would the pilot use to gain the most altitude in a given period of time?
14. How long does the Airworthiness Certificate of an aircraft remain valid?
15. Preventive maintenance has been performed on an aircraft. What paperwork is required?
16. Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance?
17. Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance?
18. When must a current pilot certificate be in the pilot's personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft?
19. A recreational or private pilot acting as pilot in command, or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember, must have in his or her personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft a current...
20. What document(s) must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot in command of an aircraft?
21. Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of the Administrator, the NTSB, or any...
22. A Third Class Medical Certificate is issued to a 36 year old pilot on August 10, this year. To exercise the privileges of a Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on...
23. A Third Class Medical Certificate is issued to a 51 year old pilot on May 3, this year. To exercise the privileges of a Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on...
24. For private pilot operations, a Second Class Medical Certificate issued to a 42 year old pilot on July 15, this year, will expire at midnight on...
25. For private pilot operations, a First Class Medical Certificate issued to a 23 year old pilot on October 21, this year, will expire at midnight on...
26. A Third Class Medical Certificate was issued to a 19 year old pilot on August 10, this year. To exercise the privileges of a recreational or private pilot certificate, the medical certificate will expire at midnight on...
27. Before a person holding a private pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of a high performance airplane, that person must have...
28. What is the definition of a high performance airplane?
29. The pilot in command is required to hold a type rating in which aircraft?
30. In order to act as pilot in command of a high performance airplane, a pilot must have...
31. To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, a pilot must show by logbook endorsement the satisfactory completion of a flight review or completion of a pilot proficiency check within the preceding...
32. If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on August 8, this year, when is the next flight review required?
33. Each recreational or private pilot is required to have...
34. If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on August 8, this year, when is the next flight review required?
35. To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in an aircraft of the same category, class, and if a type rating is required, of the same type, within the preceding...
36. If recency of experience requirements for night flight are not met and official sunset is 1830, the latest time passengers may be carried is...
37. To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made three takeoffs and three landings within the preceding 90 days in an aircraft of the same...
38. The three takeoffs and landings that are required to act as pilot in command at night must be done during the time period from...
39. To meet the recency of experience requirements to act as pilot in command carrying passengers at night, a pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop within the preceding 90 days in...
40. The takeoffs and landings required to meet the recency of experience requirements for carrying passengers in a tailwheel airplane...
41. If a certificated pilot changes permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA Airman Certification Branch of the new address, the pilot is entitled to exercise the privileges of the pilot certificate for a period of only...
42. A certificated private pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider unless there is entered in the pilot's logbook a minimum of...
43. To act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider, a pilot is required to have made within the preceding 12 months...
44. In regard to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may...
45. According to regulations pertaining to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may...
46. What exception, if any, permits a private pilot to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers who pay for the flight?
Recreational Pilot questions omitted here. Begin again at question 70.
70. The width of a Federal Airway from either side of the centerline is...
71. Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include that Class E airspace extending upward from...
72. The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is the...
73. Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight?
74. Where may an aircraft's operating limitations be found?
75. Under what conditions may objects be dropped from an aircraft?
76. No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft with...
77. A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding...
78. Under what condition, if any, may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft?
79.Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include...
80. In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to...
81. Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?
82. Flight crewmembers are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during...
83. Which best describes the flight conditions under which flight crewmembers are specifically required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened?
84. Safety belts are required to be properly secured about which persons in an aircraft and when?
85. With respect to passengers, what obligation, if any, does a pilot in command have concerning the use of safety belts?
86. With certain exceptions, safety belts are required to be secured about passengers during...
87. No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight...
88. An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplane's position, which aircraft has the right-of-way?
89. When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right-of-way belongs to the aircraft...
90.Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?
91.What action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a head-on collision course?
92. What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head-on?
93. Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?
94. Which aircraft has the right-of-way over all other air traffic?
95. A seaplane and a motorboat are on crossing courses. If the motorboat is to the left of the seaplane, which has the right-of-way?
96. When flying in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is...
97. Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL?
98. When flying in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is...
99. Unless otherwise authorized, the maximum indicated airspeed at which aircraft may be flown when at or below 2,500 feet AGL and within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of Class C airspace is...
100. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft may not be operated closer than what distance from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure?
101. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere?
102. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas?
103. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area?
104. Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to which altitude or altimeter setting?
105. If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot adjust the altimeter?
106. At what altitude shall the altimeter be set to 29.92, when climbing to cruising flight level?
107. When must a pilot who deviates from a regulation during an emergency send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator?
108. When would a pilot be required to submit a detailed report of an emergency which caused the pilot to deviate from an ATC clearance?
109. If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action, the pilot in command may...
110. When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command may deviate from that clearance, unless that pilot obtains an amended clearance. The one exception to this regulation is...
111. What action, if any, is appropriate if the pilot deviates from an ATC instruction during an emergency and is given priority?
112. Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace?
113. What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?
114. What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?
115. With certain exception, all aircraft within 30 miles of a Class B primary airport from the surface upward to 10,000 feet MSL must be equipped with...
116. Under what condition, if any, may pilots fly through a restricted area?
117. In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited?
118. What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane?
119. What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane?
120. The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is...
121. VFR flight in controlled airspace above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL requires a minimum visibility and vertical cloud clearance of...
122. For VFR flight operations above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required is...
123. The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are...
124. The minimum distance from clouds required for VFR operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL is...
125. What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours?
126. What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL?
127. During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is...
128. During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is...
129. No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the...
130. During operations at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is...
131. Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirement for VFR flight above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours is...
132. During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is...
133. During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is...
134. Normal VFR operations in Class D airspace with an operating control tower require the visibility and ceiling to be at least...
135. What ATC facility should the pilot contact to receive a special VFR departure clearance in Class D airspace?
136. A special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate VFR while within Class D airspace when the visibility is...
137. No person may operate an airplane within Class D airspace at night under special VFR unless the...
138. What are the minimum requirements for airplane operations under special VFR in Class D airspace at night?
139. What is the minimum weather condition required for airplanes operating under special VFR in Class D airspace?
140. Which VFR cruising altitude is acceptable for a flight on a Victor Airway with a magnetic course of 175 degrees? The terrain is less than 1,000 feet.
141. Which cruising altitude is appropriate for a VFR flight on a magnetic course of 135 degrees?
142. Which VFR cruising altitude is appropriate when flying above 3,000 feet AGL on a magnetic course of 185 degrees?
143. Each person operating an aircraft at a VFR cruising altitude shall maintain an odd-thousand plus 500-foot altitude while on a...
144. In addition to a valid Airworthiness Certificate, what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight?
145. When must batteries in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced or recharged, if rechargeable?
146. When may an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be tested?
147. When are non-rechargeable batteries of an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) required to be replaced?
148. When must the battery in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced (or recharged if the battery is rechargeable)?
149. Except in Alaska, during what time period should lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft?
150. Unless each occupant is provided with supplemental oxygen, no person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry above a maximum cabin pressure altitude of...
151. When operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to an including 14,000 feet MSL, supplemental oxygen shall be used during...
152. An operable 4096-code transponder with an encoding altimeter is required in which airspace?
153. An operable 4096-code transponder and Mode C encoding altimeter are required in...
154. In which controlled airspace is acrobatic flight prohibited?
155. No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight when the flight visibility is less than...
156. What is the lowest altitude permitted for acrobatic flight?
157. No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight when...
158. With certain exceptions, when must each occupant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute?
159. A chair-type parachute must have been packed by a certificated and appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding...
160. An approved chair-type parachute may be carried in an aircraft for emergency use if it has been packed by an appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding...
161. Which is normally prohibited when operating a restricted category civil aircraft?
162. Unless otherwise specifically authorized, no person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate...
163. The responibility for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition is primarily that of the...
164. The responsibility for ensuring that maintenance personnel make the appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service lies with the...
165. If an alteration or repair substantially affects an aircraft's operation in flight, that aircraft must be test flown by an appropriately-rated pilot and approved for return to service prior to being operated...
166. Before passengers can be carried in an aircraft that has been altered in a manner that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics, it must be flight tested by an appropriately-rated pilot who holds at least a...
167. A 100 hour inspection was due at 3302.5 hours. The 100 hour inspection was actually done at 3309.5 hours. When is the next 100 hour inspection due?
168. An aircraft's annual inspection was performed on July 12, this year. The next annual inspection will be due no later than...
169. What aircraft inspections are required for rental aircraft that are also used for flight instruction?
170. An aircraft had a 100-hour inspection when the tachometer read 1259.6. When is the next 100-hour inspection due?
171. No person may use an ATC transponder unless it has been tested and inspected within at least the preceding...
172. Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1, 1993. The next inspection will be due no later than...
173. Completion of an annual inspection and the return of the aircraft to service should always be indicated by...
174. To determine the expiration date of the last annual aircraft inspection, a person should refer to the...
175. Which records or documents shall the owner or operator of an aircraft keep to show compliance with an applicable Airworthiness Directive?
176. If an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage to the aircraft, the nearest NTSB field office should be notified...
177. Which incident would necessitate an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?
178. Which incident requires an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?
179. Which incident requires an immediate notification be made to the nearest NTSB field office?
180. May aircraft wreckage be moved prior to the time the NTSB takes custody?
181. The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an accident report within how many days?
182. The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an incident is required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB...
You have completed the Block 4 Exam of the Federal Aviation Regulations, one of the longest Block Exams of this course. If you had any problems with the subject here, contact the Academy staff
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