Home|Contents Marriage Divorce and Remarriage

Marriage Divorce and Remarriage

 

Part 7

 

Rex Banks




 

 

Appendix 1.

 

a. It is clear from Jesus’ teaching on marriage divorce and remarriage that with but one exception, the individual who enters into a second marriage relationship while the first spouse is living is involved in ongoing sexual sin in violation of the marriage covenant. Such individuals are said to “commit adultery” (present tense). Unfortunately some are attempting to evade the force of the Lord’s clear teaching on this point, and the various attempts to accommodate unscriptural unions include the argument that the verb form of moichao (adultery) in Matt 5 and 19 does not speak of   ongoing sexual activity in violation of the marriage covenant, but rather of a one time act of “covenant breaking.”

 

b. For example Homer Hailey makes the following comment:

 

“The sin was in breaking the covenant by the wife (or husband) in order to marry another and not in a ‘continuous sexual adulterous condition.’ Therefore, repentance demands they do not break such a covenant again” (The Divorced and Remarried Who Would Come to God). 

 

Thus “adultery” is covenant breaking rather than sexual sin and as a corollary, repentance simply involves the cessation of “covenant breaking” and does not involve the renunciation of a sexual relationship with a second “spouse”. The adulterer or “covenant breaker” simply resolves to give up covenant breaking and is free to remain with the new marriage partner.

 

Adultery: Covenant Breaking?

 

a. Very little can be said in defence the argument that “adultery” means something other than sexual sin, and the bankruptcy of this position is evident from the admissions and the bizarre linguistic gymnastics of those who attempt to defend it. For example Truman Scott who defends the “covenant breaking” position says:

 

“Up front let me tell you that every publication, I mean Bible dictionary, commentary, Greek Lexicon, Greek word study, specific treaties on divorce and remarriage … everything that I am aware of that has been written or translated within the last 350 to 400 years define adultery as follows: ‘Sexual intercourse between a married person and someone other than his or her spouse’” (Wayne Jackson, Truman Scott Divorce and Remarriage).  

 

b. Really this candid admission kills the “covenant breaking” position stone dead.  Unless we are prepared to jettison all authoritative sources we must accept that the literal meaning of moichao is “to have unlawful intercourse with another’s wife, to commit adultery with” (Thayer).


The woman caught in the very act of adultery was not involved in “covenant breaking” (Jn 8) and Jesus did not warn men not let their minds be inflamed by thoughts of “covenant breaking” (Matt 5:27).

 

The literal meaning of na'aph (Heb) in the Old Testament is equally clear. Adultery committed with “another man’s wife” (Lev 20:10) was sexual sin, while the graphic language applied to Jerusalem, the “adulteress wife” of Ezekiel 16:32 is unambiguous.

 

c. Because there is no real argument about the verdict of the lexicons no useful purpose is served by multiplying quotations from various Hebrew, Greek or English word studies.

 

d. Complete lack of support for the novel definition of adultery as “covenant breaking” is enough, in and of itself, to demolish the above argument, but we will also say a word about the claim that the verb “commits adultery” denotes a one time act in Matt 5 and 19. However, first consider another difficulty encountered by proponents of this position.

 

Suppose a Christian broke his covenant with Christ and pledged himself to serve a false god. Clearly this is a sinful act, and if pledging oneself to a false god is a sinful act, remaining in a relationship with that false god continues to be sinful. In the example under consideration, repentance involves not merely the repudiation of the original pledge to serve a false god, but also the cessation of any activities associated with that pledge.

 

This is another reason for rejecting the “covenant breaking” position, regardless of whether moichao speaks of ongoing activity or a one time act in Matt 5 and 19.

 

e. Some who argue that adultery is to be defined as divorce and remarriage appeal to a rule known as the Present General Supposition. They argue that according to this rule, the present tense of the apodosis indicates what will happen whenever the conditions set forth in the protasis are met. (The protasis is the “if-clause” of a conditional sentence which describes the conditions that allow something to happen, while the apodosis [sometimes introduced by “then” or the equivalent] sets forth what will happen). They argue that according to Jesus in Matt 19:9 the two acts of divorcing and remarrying constitute the committing of adultery. This is clearly not the case.

 

f. In his Syntax of Moods and Tenses in New Testament Greek, Ernst De Witt Burton has the following under rule 260 Present General Supposition:

 

“The supposition refers to any occurrence of an act of a certain class in the (general) present, and the apodosis states what is wont to take place in any instant of an act of the class referred to in the protasis” (emphasis mine).

 

As an example Burton cites Jn 11:9 where Jesus affirms “If anyone walks in the day, he does not stumble.”  

 

g. Note carefully that Burton does not simply define the action of the apodosis in terms of the conditions set forth in the protasis. He says that the apodosis states what is “wont” to happen (likely to happen, prone to happen) in any instant of an act of the class referred to in the protasis. Thus not stumbling (Jn 11:9) is not defined as walking in the day but is the likely outcome of walking in the day. So too committing adultery (by engaging in illicit sexual intercourse in violation of the marriage bond) is not defined as divorcing and remarrying but is the likely accompaniment to such actions. (Usually sexual intimacy is part of marriage).

 

h. Finally, some are confused about the meaning of adultery because they fail to distinguish between the literal and figurative meaning of moichao. Brother Olan Hicks falls into this trap when he argues:

 

Limiting the meaning of the word "adultery" to sexual cohabitation is a mistake. Thayer gives also this definition of it: "to usurp unlawful control over the sea, to falsify, to corrupt" (Lexicon, pg. 417). The Bible also uses the term variously. James uses it of friendship with the world (Js. 4:4). Jeremiah used it of Idolatry (Jer. 3:9). Jesus used it of lust in the heart (Matt. 5:28). Thus it is a mistake to restrict its meaning to physical sexual intercourse” (Divorce: Is It Wrong to marry Again?).

 

Brother Hicks fails to mention that the quotation from Thayer deals with the figurative use of moichao, and the fact the figurative use of a word does not alter its literal meaning. (Certainly there can be no suggestion that “adultery” is figurative in Matt 19:9 given the context and the fact that “immorality” is undoubtedly literal).   Hugo McCord points out:


“When Jesus spoke of adultery he referred to it in three ways: (1) physical, fourteen times (Matt. 5:27, 32; 15:19; 19:9, 18; Mark 7:21; 10:11-12, 19; Luke 16:18; 18:11, 20; Rev. 2:22); (2) mental, one time (Matt. 5:28); and (3) figurative, a general unfaithfulness in all of life, three times (Matt. 12:39; 16:4; Mark 8:38). James added one more figurative use, unfaithfulness to God (4:4). But neither Jesus nor James nor any other NT wrier spoke of adultery as ‘unfaithfulness to a covenant of marriage’” (A Scholarly Book of Errors [I cannot identify the publication in which this article appeared]).

 

The Matter of Tense.

 

Lacking an in depth knowledge of the Greek language I will restrict my comments to a few general points which have been the focus of much discussion in the debate on marriage, divorce and remarriage.

 

a. In the indicative mood it is possible for simple undefined (“aoristic”) action to be expressed by the present tense, (although this is not true of the subjunctive, the optative or the imperative where “the so called present [is] practically always linear unless the Aktionsart [kind of action – Rex] of the verb itself is strongly punctiliar” A.T. Robertson, A Grammar of the Greek NT). It is because of this peculiarity of the indicative that a great deal of discussion has arisen in connection with the verb translated “commits adultery,” some insisting that the verb speaks of ongoing action and some insisting that punctiliar action is in view.

 

b. Invariably those on both sides of the argument appeal to various language specialists in support of their own position. Such appeals can be quite daunting to those of us who lack the specialized knowledge to comment on the debate.   For example, those who insist that the final verb in Matt 19:9 signifies durative action frequently cite the following from Ernest De Witt Burton:

 

“The Aoristic Present. The Present Indicative is sometimes used of an action or event coincident in time with the act of speaking, and conceived of as a simple event…. This usage is a distinct departure from the prevailing use of the Present tense to denote action in progress.” (Emphasis mine) (Syntax of the Moods and Tenses in New Testament Greek).

 

c. Usually this is countered with an appeal to other language specialists like A.T Robertson who says in his Grammar:

 

"(It) is not wise therefore to define the pres. ind. as denoting 'action in progress' like the imperf. as Burton does, for he has to take it back on p. 9 in the discussion of the 'Aoristic Present,' which he calls a 'distinct departure from the prevailing use of the present tense to denote an action in progress.' In sooth, it is no 'departure' at all. The idiom is as old as the tense itself and is due to the failure in the development of separate tenses for punctiliar and linear action in the ind. of present time."

 

d. In similar vein Dana and Mantey has:

 

“It is a mistake to suppose that the durative meaning monopolizes the present stem. Since there is no aorist tense for present time, the present tense as used in the indicative, must do service for both linear and punctiliar action” (Manual Grammar).

 

Usually this elicits a counter claim, for example the assertion that according to Dana and Mantey “the progressive force of the present tense should always be considered as primary, especially with reference to the potential moods, when the nature of the case does not need any ‘present punctiliar’ tense.”

 

e. Most of us find such discussions quite intimidating, but before giving up in despair here are a few points which are generally agreed upon and not difficult to understand:

 

i. The fundamental characteristic of the present indicative is action in progress, and unless some compelling reason exists for rejecting ongoing action in the final verb of Matt 19:9 such durative action is preferred.

 

ii. The verb root may suggest punctiliar action or durative action. For example the statement “I turn 20” should be considered punctiliar because of the action described (it is not ongoing) whereas “My heart beats” clearly suggests iterative or repetitive or interspersed action. The kind of action which the verb describes (the aktionsart) helps determine if durative or punctiliar action is intended.  A.T. Robertson explains in his Grammar::      

“We can see this difference in our English. To blink the eye is punctiliar, to live linear. Hence it is not enough to learn the force of voice, tense and mode. The real meaning of the verb root has to be considered. In a broad general way the Greek tenses were developed to make plainer the root idea of verbs so that almost any verb might be used either as punctiliar, linear or state of completion." (Grammar).

And:

"The verb-root plays a large part in the history of the verb. This essential meaning of the word itself antedates the tense development and continues afterwards." (ibid).

(In the Divorce Debate Olan Hicks insists that the aktionsart of “commits adultery” is settled by the fact that the first two verbs in Matt 19:9 are punctiliar. He insists that “The other one relates to them so that it can be said that this one is also punctiliar.” Brother Jim Waldron points out in response that according to A. T Robertson, [Grammar] “the aktionsart concerns the action of the verb itself.”)

 iii. Clearly in light of ii above, since “adultery” involves sexual activity in violation of the marriage bond (see above) there is every reason to insist that the final verb in Matt 19:9 describes ongoing activity. The adultery is ongoing as long as illicit sexual activity continues.

iv. Also significant is the fact that the verbs “divorces” and “marries” in Matt 19:9 are both aorist tense verbs, but “commits adultery” is present tense. The fact that Jesus changes from the aorist to the present strongly suggests that He was stressing ongoing action in the third verb. He was not restricted to the present tense and could have expressed aorist action clearly     

f. Finally, it is important to keep in mind that even if Jesus did employ the aorist here, it is not correct to say that the aoristic present must speak of punctiliar action. The term “aorist” simply means undefined. (See Burton’s Syntax p 9).

Conclusion: In Matt 19:9 Jesus is saying that the one who divorces (aorist) his wife and marries another (aorist) keeps on committing adultery. It is possible to live in adultery that that is the sad plight of the unscripturally married individual.