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Model Entrance Examination 1999
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Here are the questions of the Alumni Model Entrance Examination 1999 :
Page 2
**Go to Page 1 **Go to Page 3 **Answers
101. The
characteristic ROUNDNESS the shoulder is due to:
a. Acromion process of the scapula b. Coracoid process of scapula
c. Both d. Neither
102. During
the process of normal respiration:
a. 90 joints move b. Intercostal muscles do not act c. Diaphragm
relaxes during expiration d. Expiration produced solely by
internal intercostals.
103. Characteristic
features of large intestine:
a. Taenia coli b. Appendices epiplociae c. Large lumen d. All of
the above
104. The
spinal cord extends from foramen magnum to the lower border of
the vertebra
a. Tenth thoracic b. Eleventh thoracic c. First lumbar d. Third
lumbar
105. Paralysis
of tongue muscles of one side and lower limb muscles of opposite
side may be caused as a result of damage to one of the following
arteries:
a. Anterior spinal b. Posterior spinal c. Anterior inferior
cerebellar d. Posterior inferior cerebellar
106.
Injury to ulnar nerve above elbow can produce:
a. Ape hand b. Claw hand c. Dupuytren's contracture d. Volkmann's
contracture
107. The
general sensory supply to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue is by:
a. Lingual nerve b. Hypoglossal nerve c.
Glossopharyngeal nerve d. Chorda tympani nerve
108. The
interior of the ureter is lined by:
a. Ciliated columnar epithelium b. Simple squamous epithelium c.
Transitional epithelium d. Cuboidal epithelium
109. Which
sinus is closely related to Tentorium cerebelli:
a. Straight sinus b. Transverse sinus c. Inferior petrosal sinus
d. Occipital sinus
110. The
root value of pudendal nerve is:
a. S1S2S3 b. S2S3S4 c.L5S1 d. S3S4S5
111. The
inguinal triangle has its boundary:
a. Pectineal line b. Inferior epigastric artery c. Conjoint
tendon d. Linea senilunaris
112.
Triceps is supplied by:
a. Ulnar nerve b. Radial nerve c. Axillary nerve d.
Musulo-cutaneous nerve
113.
Which is not a part of basal ganglia:
a. Amygdaloid body b. Lentiform nucleus c. Caudate nucleus d.
Dentate nucleus
114. The
glands having both an endocrine and exocrine function include:
a. Pancreas b. Testis c. Both d. None
115. Nerve
supply of stapedius muscle:
a. Glassopharyngeal b. Facial c. Vagus d. Accessory
116. Coronary
blood flow is usually predominantly controlled by
a. Autoregulation b. Hormone c. Parasympathetic impulses d.
Sympathetic impulses
117.
Basic reflex of posture is the
a. Flexor reflex b. Crossed extensor reflex c. Glogi tendon
reflex d. Positive supporting reaction
118.
Cardiac index is related to:
a. Cardiac output and body weight b. Cardiac output and surface
area c. Cardiac output and work of the heart d. Stroke volume and
pulse rate
119. Glucocorticoids
when in excess, decrease the number of:
a. Circulatory neutrophils b. Circulatory eosinophils c.
Circulatory platelets d. Circulatory red blood cells
120.
Circulating blood normally contains free:
a. Thrombin b. Fibrin c. Prothrombin d. None of the above
121. Active
reabsorption of glucose appears to occur in the:
a. Proximal tubule b. Loope of Henle c. Distal tubule d. All of
the above
122. Hypertension
may be produced by:
a. Coarctation of aorta b. Normal kidneys c. Sodium depletion d.
Ventricular fibrillation
123. In
Addison's disease there is rise in:
a. Blood glucose b. Blood pressure c. Serum potassium d. Serum
sodium
124. The
most reliable sign of hypoxia is:
a. Hypertension b. Hypotension c. Increased pulse rate d. Deep
respiration
125.
Decreased water absorption in the proximal tubules occurs in:
a. Water diuresis b. Osmotic diuresis c. Diabetes insipidus d.
None of the above
126. Carbonmonoxide
is carried in the blood:
a. In combination with haemoglobin b. In physical solution in
plasma c. In combination with plasma proteins d. All are true
127.
Thyrone hormones tend to increase:
a. Peripheral resistance b. Intestinal movements c. Drowsiness d.
The duration of tendon reflexes
128. Cerebrospinal
fluid
a. is actively secreted by choroidal plexus b. it is a major
source of brain nutrition c. Has the phase arterial blood d.
Virtually glucose free
129. With
increasing age, increase of all tends to occur in the following
except:
a. Systolic blood pressure b. Pulse pressure c. Vital capacity d.
Residual volume
130. Arterial
pressure can be lowered by stimulation of the:
a. Vasomotor centre b. Motor cortex c. Anterior hypothalamus d.
Posterior hypothalamus
131. One
of the following is not an aromatic aminoacid
a.Threonine b. Phenylalanine c. Tyrosine d. Tryptophan
132. Which
of the following is a metabolic precursor of uric acid:
a. Lysine b. Hippuric acid c. Tryptophane d.Cystine
133.
Insulin resistance is encountered in:
a. Addison's disease b. Hypothyroidism c. Hypopituitarism d.
Acromegaly
134. Lactate
dehydrogenase levels are increased in blood in
a. Nephrotic syndrome b. Myocardial infarction c. Diabetes
mellitus d. Acute pancreatitis
135. High
blood cholesterol and diminished serum proteins are encountered
in:
a. Atherosclerosis b. Hypothyroidism c. Obstructive jaundice d.
Nephrotic syndrome
136. In
sickle cell anemia, the haemoglobin has faulty
a. Iron component b. Porphyrin component c. Beta chain globin d.
Alpha chain of globin
137.
Convulsive episodes occur when there is a severe deficiency of:
a. Folic acid b. Pyridoxine c. Thiamine d. Riboflavine
138. PBI
is a combination of protein and:
a. Thyroxine and Triiodothyronine b. Thyroxine only c. Tri
iodothyronine only d. Iodine
139. 'Prothrombin
time' of plasma is prolonged by administration of:
a. Vitamin K b. Dicoumarol c. Calcium gluconate d. Folic acid
140. Methyl
malonic aciduria is seen in a deficiency of:
a. Vitamin B6 b. Folic acid c. Thiamine d. Vitamin B12
141. Calcitonin
is antagonist to;
a. Parathyroid hormone b. Serotonin c. Insulin d.Epinephrine
142. Detoxification
of drugs and metabolites is effected by hydroxylation of:
a. Cytochrome a b. Cytochrome b45 c. Cytochrome c d. Cytochrome p
143. One
of the following lipoproteins ward off atherosclerosis
a. LDL b. HDL c. VDL d. IDL
144.
Reduction of mineralocorticoids cause:
a. Excess of potassium b. Low potassium c. Excess of sodium d.
None of the above
145. Glycogen
is converted into glucose-1-phosphate by:
a. UDPG transferase b. Branching enzymes c. Phosphorylase d.
Diphosphorylase
146. Which
of the following is not usually associatedwith abd.pain in
infancy
a. Volvulus b. Infantile colic c. Intussusception d.Duodenal
ulcer
147. Which
of the following is most essential for a growing 4 years old
child:
a. Histidine b. Isoleucine c. Leucine d. Lysine 148. Kwashiorker
is characterised by all except:
a. Skin changes b. Growth reatrdation c. Edema d. Mental
alertness
149. When
should breast feeding be started for a new born
a. 12 hours of life b. 25 hours of life c. 6 hours of life d. 2
hours of life
150. The
commonest cause of convulsion in a 9 months old child with fever
is:
a. Phenylketonuria b. Febrile convulsion c. Epilepsy d.
Meningitis
151. Preventable
cause of mental retardation:
a. Mongolism(Down's syndrome) b. Microcephaly c. Neonatal tetanus
d. Hypothyroidism
152. The
most common cause of blindness in children is:
a. Tuberculous meningitis b. Small pox c. Vitamin A deficiency d.
Congenital rubella syndrome
153. Among
the many congenital laryngeal abnormalities, the most frequently
seen abnormality is:
a. Laryngomalacia b. Laryngeal web c. Laryngocele d. Laryngeal
cyst
154. Wiskott-Aldrich
syndrome is characterised by the following features except:
a. Thrombocytopenia b. Draining ears c. Eczema d. Low IgG
155. Faecal
examination is usually not effective in the diagnosis of:
a. Ascariasis b. Enterobiasis c. Hookworm infestation d.
Strongyloidiosis
156. The
following are the types of pyoderma except:
a. Folliculitis b. Mollascum contagiosum c. Impetigo d. Icthyma
157. The
drug of choice in Streptococcal infection is:
a. Sulphonamide b. Penicillin c. Tetracyclin d. Chloramphenicol
158. The
CSF findings in tuberculous meningitis include all, except:
a. Elevated pressure b. Usually turbid c. Forms cobweb coagulum
d. Increased protein content
159. One
of the following is not a characteristic feature of Down's
syndrome:
a. Protruding tongue b. Simian crease c. Mental retardation d.
Prominent occiput
160. All
of the following are causes of neonatal jaundice, except:
a. Syphilis b. Rh1 D incompatibility c. Biliary atresia d.
Pancreatic carcinoma
161.
Schizophrenia is most closely associated with:
a. Psthesis b. Asthenic c. Athletic d. Dysplastic
162. Imipramine
is mainly used as a:
a. Antidepressant b. Tranquilizer c. Sedative d. None of the
above
163. The
best clues to a diagnosis of psychoneurosis are derived from:
a. Reaction to environment b. Motor behaviour c. Verbal accounts
d. Visceral reactions
164. Acute
organic psychosis may be associated with all of the following
diseases except:
a. Head injury b. Arteriosclerosis c. Meningitis d. Delirium
tremens
165. Excessive
talkativeness and flight of ideas are the features of:
a. Mania b. Schizophrenia c. Hysteria d. Psychoneuroses
166. One
finds the patient to be clinging, dependent and demanding in:
a. Depressive stupor b. Paranoid depression c. Claiming types of
depression d. Acute depression
167. The
'trigger' for a sustained metabolic process responsible for mania
is:
a. L-dopa b. 5-HT c. Cyclic AMP d. 5-HIAA
168. In
grief as in depression, there are similar findings, except for:
a. Loss of self esteem b. Sense of loss c. Sadness d. Loss of
interest in outside world
169. Average
duration of untreated depressive episodes is:
a. 1 month b. 9 months c. 6 months d. 3 months
170.
Classical depression is characterised by all, except:
a. Psychomotor retardation b. Loosening of associations c.
Retardation of thinking processes d. Pervading mood of
melancholia
171. The
prime habitat of the staphylococcus is:
a. Throat b. Nose c. Skin d. Ear
172. A
common complication of mumps is :
a. Myocarditis b. Orchitis c. Uveitis d. Conjunctivitis.
173. A
patient with small pox is infectious until :
a. Rash appears b. When lesions are encrusted c. All crusts have
fallen of d. Fever subsides
174. The
most frequent complication of measles is :
a. Pneumonia b. Encephalitis c. Otitis media d. Bronchitis.
175. The
treatment of acute pulmonary oedema includes all of the following
except :
a. Morphine IM b. Aminophyllin IV c. Phlebotomy or tourniquets on
all extremities d. Salt restriction.
176.
Streptococcal meningitis is usually a complication of :
a. S.B.E b. Otitis media c. Pharyngitis d. Chorea.
177. Acute
myocardial infarction frequently presents with all of the
following except :
a. Nausea and vomiting b. Dyspnoea c. Flushed skin d. Syncope.
178. The
cerebral spinal fluid sugar in tuberculous meningitis is usually
:
a. Normal b. Elevated c. Below normal d. Absent.
179.
Antibiotic that can be used safely in renal failure is :
a. Penicillin b. Nitrofurantion c. Chlortetracycline d.
Kanamycin.
180. The
most important complication of mitral insufficiency includes :
a. Arrhythmia b. Embolism c. Cardiac failure d. Subacute
bacterial endocarditis.
181. Severe
jaundice in sickle cell disease occurs with – crisis
a. Hepatic b. Haemolytic c. Aplastic d. Vaso-occlusive.
182. Fragmentation
of nucleus in necrosed cell is known as :
a. Karyorrhexis b. Karyolysis c. Pylorosis d. Caseation.
183. Tachycardia
is not a features of :
a. Digitalis poisoning b. Obstructive jaundice c. Pulmonary
tuberculosis d. Thyrotoxicosis.
184. The
most frequent site of tuberculosis in the G.U. tract is :
a. Ovary b. Fallopain tubes c. Cervix d. Body of uterus.
185. Which
of the following is most essential for a growing 4 years old
child :
a. Histidine b. Isoleucine c. Leucine d. Lysine.
186. The
most frequent complications of meningococcal meningitis :
a. Arthritis b. Panopthamitis c. Pericarditis d. Endocarditis.
187. Amphoric
breathing is heard in :
a. Small cavities b. Closed pneumothorax c. Pericardial effusion
d. Pneumothorax.
188. Tension
pneumothorax occurs in :
a. Open pneumothorax b. Closed pneumothorax c. Valvular
pneumothorax d. Oesophageal rupture
189.
Osler's nodes are pathognomic of :
a. Rheumatic fever b. Subacute bacterial endocarditis c.
Rheumatoid arthritis d. Osteoarthritis.
190.
Pulsus alternans is felt in :
a. Myxoedema b. Pericardial effusion c. Mitral stenosis d. Left
ventricular failure.
191.
Insulin should not be given in:
a. Juvenile diabetes mellitus b. Diabetes mellitus with infection
c. Sulfonyl urea failures d. Renal glyclosuria
192. Hyperkalaemia
is characterised by:
a. narrow QRS complex b. prominent P waves c. short PR interval
d. tall T waves
193. Kayser-Fleischer
ring in corneal margin is seen in:
a. Syndenham's chorea b. Huntington's chorea c. Senile persons d.
Hepato-lenticular degeneration
194. In
Tabes dorsalis the tendon reflexes are:
a. normal b. lost c. brisk d. exaggerated
195. Erythema
Nodosum occurs in:
a. Bronchiectasis b. Sulpha reactions c. Psoriasis d. Fallot's
tetralogy
196. Dissociated
anesthesia occurs in:
a. Friedrich's ataxia b. Subacute combined degeneration c. Motor
neurone disease d. Intramedullary tumour
197. Most
sensitive part of cornea
a. Central 5mm b. Peripheral 5mm c. Upper temporal quadrant
d.Upper nasal quadrant
198. Respiratory
quotient of lens:
a. 0.4 b. 0.5 c. 0.9 d.1 199. 1st order neurons of retina:
a. Rodes & cones b. Biplor cells c. Ganglion cells d. Nerve
fibre layer
200. Pressure
of retinal arteries in the disc assessed using:
a. Schiotz tonometer b. Applanation tonometer c.
Ophthalmodynamometer d. Gonioscopy
**Answers
This page was updated on : 11/01/99 23:04:31 India Standard Time
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