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Calicut Medical College Alumni Training Session

Model Entrance Examination 1999

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Here are the questions of the Alumni Model Entrance Examination 1999 :

Page 3

**Go to Page 1 **Go to Page 2 **Answers

201. Buphthalmos is associated with cong.malformation:
a. Goldenhar's syndrome b. Sturge-weber syndrome c. Apert's syndrome d. Crouzon's syndrome

202. Candle-wax spots in retina seen in:
a. TB b. Sarcoidosis c. Toxoplasmosis d.Mediated nerve fibres

203. Ulcus serpens, a type of hypopyon ulcer is characteristic of infection with:
a. Staphylococcus b. Gonococcus c. Pneumococcus e. Pseudomonas

204. Corneal odema, occurs due to damage of:
a. Epithelium b. Bowman's membrane c. Substantia propria d. Endothelium

205. Deficiency amblyopia due to deficiency of Vitamin:
a. A b. B1 c. B6 d. C

206. Hypoplasia of optic nerve and cerebral malformations like hypopituitarism and agenesis of Corpus callosum are teratogenic effects produced by:
a. Thalidomide b. Phenytoin c. Corticosteroids d. Penicillin

207. Miners nystagmus is:
a. Vertical b. Horizontal c. Rotatory d. Pendular

208. The hand injuries which is the most important thing to be done:
a. Fixing the bone b. Skin closure c. Repair of nerves d. Repair of tendens

209. Amount of water produced inside by body by oxidation:
a. 300ml b. 400ml c. 500ml d. 600ml

210. Acquired syphillis is rarely communicable:
a. after 6months b. after 18months c. after 24months d. after 36mths

211. Most common type of aneurysm:
a. Saccular b. Furi form c. Myletic d. Dissecting

212. Phantom limb pain occur in….. percentage of people who have undergon amputation:
a. 1% b. 5% c. 10% d. 30%

213. Which among the following regarding seminoma is wrong:
a. It arises in the rete tertis b. Age group between 35 & 45yrs c. Metastases exclusively by lymphatics d. Cross sectionof tumour is homogenous and pink coloured

214. Transitional cell carinoma of urinary bladder is common in:
a. Watch manufacturer b. Aniline factory worker c. Cement factory worker d. Glass factory worker

215. Which is not included in classical trial of symptoms for hypernephroma:
a. Fever b. Pain c.Palapable renal tumour d. Hematuria

216. Second most common type of hernia is:
a. Inguinal hernia b. Femoral hernia c. Incisional hernia d. Obturator hernia

217. In a case of pelvic fracture with urethral injury the most important 1st step in management is:
a. Immediate catheterisation of bladder b. Fixationof pelvic fracture c. Repair of injured urethra d. Treatment of shock

218. In acute mechanical obstruction treatment is:
a. Gastroduodenal suction b. Replacement of fluids c. Relief of obstruction by operation d. Relief of obstruction by drugs

219. Most common malignant tumour arising from Jejunum:
a. Adenocarcinoma b. Lymphosarcoma c. Carcinoid d. Peutz Jegher's syndrome

220. Most precancerous for carcinoma colon is:
a. Familial polyposis b. Hamartomatous polyps c. Adenomatous polyps d. Hyperplastic plyps

221. Most common type of congenital diaphragmatic hernia is:
a. Sliding hiatus hernia b. Hernia through foramen of Morgagni c. Posterolateral Bahdalek hernia d. Traumatic

222. Typhoid perforation occurs during:
a. 1st week b. 2nd week c. 3rd week d. 4th week

223. Lead paint stools are characteristic of:
a. Lead poisoning b. Shigellosis c. Carcinoma pancreas d. Carcinoma rectum

224. In Examphalos minor firmstrapping is done:
a. Never b. for 1week c. for 2 weeks d. for 3 months

225. Commonest type of intussusception:
a. ileocolic b. ileocaecal c. colocolic d. colorectal

226. For recurrent variceal bleeding surgery of choice is:
a. Total portocaval shunt b. Side to side portocaval shunt
c. Proximal splenorenal shunt d. Distal splenorenal shunt

227. Post operative cholangiography is usually done ….. days later:
a. 1-2 days; b. 3-5 days c. 5-7 days d. 10-14 days

228. Commonest cause of death in peptic ulcer patient is:
a. Perforation b. Hemorrhage c. Pyloric stenosis d. Malignancies

229. Most common site of spontaneous oesophageal perforation:
a. lower 3rd b. middle 3rd c. upper 3rd d. Near cricothyroid

230. Most common complication of splenectomy is:
a. Left lower lobe atelectasis b. Acute dilatation of stomach
c. Peritoneal effusion d. Haematemesis

231. Fibrocystic disease is characterised by following except:
a. Precancerous b. Bilateral
c. Treatment is complete excision d. Incidence increase after menopause

232. Which of following thyroid tumour has most benign course:
a. Medullary carcinoma b. Papillary carcinoma
c. Undifferentiated carcinoma d. Embryonal carcinoma

233. Nerve's involved in Trotter's triad are all except:
a. 5th cranial nerve b. 7th cranial nerve c. 8th cranial nerve d. 10th cranial nerve

234. Perilymph is poorest in:
a. Sodium b. Chloride c. Potassium c. Protein

235. In congenital syphillis which is true regarding fistula sign?
a. Positive fistula sign b. Negative fistula sign c. False positive fistula sign d. False negative fistula sign

236. Which is false regarding otosclerosis:
a. More common in females b. Conductive deafness
c. Common in whites d. Autosomal recessive

237. Which among the following produces adherent membrane in nose:
a. Pneumococcal infection b. Streptococcal infection
c. Staphylococcal infection d. Candida infection

238. All except, are true regarding intra choanl polyps
a. It occurs in children b. Usually biateral
c. Seen on posterior rhinoscopy d. Usually single

239. All except are true regarding tuberculosis of larynx:
a. Posterior commissure is the most common site involved
b. Odynophagia more with solids c.Laryngeal lupus runs a painful course
c. Adduction weakness of vocal cords is considered as an early sign of tuberculosis.

240. Most common nerve injured fiction type of supra condylar fracture :
a. Median b. Ulnar c. Radial d. All three are equally involved.

241. Which fracture was called "fracture of necessity" by campbell :
a. Monteggia fracture - dislocation b. Galeazzi fracture - dislocation
c. Colle's fracture in post menopausal women d. Supracondylar fracture in children.

242. Treatment of aneurysmal bone cyst is :
a. Irradiation is useful b. Curettage and bone grafting
c. Small lesions requires no treatment d. All are true.

243. In triple dislocation of knee all are true except :
a. Tibia subluxated posteriorly b. Rotated externally
c. Displaced medially d. Displaced laterally.

244. Sclerotic bone lesions can occur in all except :
a. Chondroblastoma b. Multiple myeloma c. Bone metastasis from breast d. Lymphoma.

245. Earliest evidence of VIC in a supracondylar fracture :
a. Stretch pain b. Absence of redil pulse c. Absence of capillary filling in digits d. Edema.

246. McMurray's osteotomy is done in :
a. Osteoarthritis knee b. Non-union neck of femur
c. Posterior dislocation hip d. Triple dislocation knee.

247. Pes cavus is caused by all except :
a. Plantar fibromatosis b. Polio myelitis
c. Charcot marie tooth disease d. Shortening of tendoachilles.

248. The normal pH of the adult vagina is about :
a. 3-4 b. 4-5 c. 5-6 d. 6-7

249. The recommended daily intake of protein in pregnancy is :
a. 50 gm b. 65gm c. 85gm d. 100gm

250. Blood loss in the third stage of labor does not exceed :
a. 100 ml b. 300 ml c. 500 ml d. 700 ml.

251. Pre-eclampsia becomes eclampsia with the onset of :
a. Sudden rise in blood pressure b. Elevated B.U.N
c. Retinal haemorrhages d. Convulsions.

252. The most frequent site of ecotopic gestation is :
a. Tube b. Cornu c. Ovary d. Omentum

253. The most frequent of all ovarian tumours is the :
a. Cystadenoma b. Dermoid
c. Brenner tumour d. Fibroma

254. The primary site of pelvic tuberculosis in women is :
a. Cervix b. Tubes c. Uterus d. Ovary.

255. The commonest degenerative change in a myoma of the uterus is :
a. Red degeneration b. Faty degeneration.c. Cystic degeneration d. Hyaline degeneration.

256. In the majority of cases the first symptom of cervical cancer is :
a. Dysuria b. Leukorrhea
c. Vaginal bleeding d. Pelvic pain.

257. Neonatal death include all deaths of infants under the age of :
a. 24 hours b. 72 hours
c. 7 days d. 28 days

258. The highest incidence of multiple births is found among :
a. Negroes b. Caucasians c. Mongols d. Indians.

259. The incidence of hydramnios is not increased in excess :
a. Twin pregnancy b. Diabetes c. Face presentation d. Anencephally.

260. In a vertex presentation the commonest position at the time of engagement is :
a. L.O.A b. R.O.P. c. R.O.A. d. L.O.T.

261. Foetal requirement of iron is :
a. 200 mg b. 300 mg c. 400 mg d. 500 mg.

262. The treatment of hyperemesis gravidarum consists :
a. Rest sedation b. I.V. salt solution c. Both d. Neither.

263. The two symptoms most commonly found in adenolyosis are :
a. Menorrhagia and dysmenorrhoea b. Metrorrhagia and dysmenorrhoea
c. Dysmenorrhoea and polymenorrhoea d. Dysmenorrhoea and epi-menorrhagia.

264. The most constant and usually the only symptom of cervicitis is :
a. Leucorrhoea b. Dysmenorrhoea c. Post coital bleeding d. Tenesmus.

265. All of the following are venereal diseases, except :
a. Yaws b. Gonorrhoea
c. Lipschutz ulcer d. Chancroid.

266. In a cystic teratoma of the ovary when a malignant change occurs, the lesion is most likely to be :
a. Sarcoma b. Squamous cell carcinoma
c. Adenocarcinoma d. Carcino-sarcoma.

267. Treatment by radiotherapy is most frequently indicated in carcinoma of :
a. Ovary b. Lung c. Cervix d. Thyroid.

268. The most common tumor of the major salivary glands is :
a. Benign mixed tumour b. Malignant mixed tumour
c. Warthin's tumour d. Cylindrioma.

269. Cobalt 60 is a :
a. Radioactive isotope b. Deep X-ray therapy machine
c. Diagnostic machine d. Beta ray source.

270. Half life of radio-active cobalt 60 is :
a. 1600 years b. 30.5 years
c. 5.6 years d. 3 years.

271. Craniospinal irradiation is indicated in :
a. Acute lymphatic leukaemia after remission b. Hodgkins disease stage IV.
c. Cancer breast stage IV d. Seminoma testis stage IV.

272. Ewing's tumor is :
a. Radioresistant b. Radiosensitive
c. Radiosensitive but recurrent d. Surgery is the treatment of choice.

273. In thyrotoxicosis of thyroid scanning the isotope used :
a. I 131 b. I132 c. Tele cobalt d. Tc.

274. CT Scan will reveal all, except :
a. Cerebral tumours b. Cerebral haemorrhages
c. Cerebral atrophy d. Grey & White matter differentiation.

275. Cerebral angiography is useful in demonstrating:
a. Lesions of cerebral blood vessels and intracranial tumours
b. Scars and atrophic lesions of the brain.
c. Chronic meningitis d. Epilepsy.

276. Radiotherapy is curable in :
a. Ewing's tumor b. Osteosarcoma
c. Rahabdomyosarcoma d. Squamous cell carcinoma of mouth.

277. Gamma radiation is protected by :
a. Lead b. Gold c. Copper d. Aluminium.

278. Subphrenic abscess is diagnosed by :
a. Plain X-ray b. Fluroscopy
c. Upper gastrointestinal series d. None of the above.

279. Hertz is a unit of :
a. Loudness b. Intensity c. Power d. Frequency.

280. In ultrasound machines, the piezo electric crystal is made of:
a. Silicon b. Tungsten c. Lead stannous zirconate d. Molybdenum.

281. Paramagnetic contrast dye used in NMR imaging is :
a. Technetium b. Gadolinium c. Conray d. Gallium.

282. Which radio isotope is capable of displacing calcium from the body :
a. Radium b. Strontium c. Plutonium d. Iridium.

283. CT scan was discovered by :
a. HelmHoltz b. Hounsefield c. Honarda d. Bozzini.

284. Pantrier micro abscess is seen in:
a. Psoriasis b. PLEVA c. Mycosis fungoides d. Pemphigus

285. Positive Koebner phenomenon can occur in all except:
a. Psoriasis b. Lichen planus c. Warts d. Molluscum fibrosum

286. Drug of choice in pustular psoriasis:
a. Retinoids b. Methotrexate c. Systemic steroids d. Cyclosporin

287. Intraepidermal split is seen in:
a. Bullous pemphigoid b. Dermatitis lupetiformis
c. Epidermolysis bullosa acquisita d. Epidermolysis bullosa simplex

288. All are true about HD(TT) except:
a. Well defined plaques b. Presence of clear sub-epidermal zone
c. Infiltrative of nerve d. Well defined granuloma

289. Trichomycosis axillaris is caused by:
a. Trichophyton rubrum b. Corynebacterium minitismum
c. Micrococceus sedentarius d. Corynebacterium tenuis

290. Co-receptor for macrophage-…….. HIV is:
a. CCR5 b. CXCR4 c. CD4 d. Galactosyl ceramide molecule

291. Drug used in both treatment of leprosy and lepra reaction is:
a. Rifampicin b. Thalidomide c. Prednisolone d. Clofazimine

292. Disease associated with H HSV-8:
a. Kaposis sarcoma b. Adult T-cell lymphoma
c. Mycosis fungoides d. Lymphamatoid papulosis

293. The I test to become +ve in syphilis is:
a. TPHA b. TPI c. FTA ABS d. VDRL

294. Tracheal tug is associated with:
a. Carbon dioxide narcosis b. Deep anaesthesia c. Biphasic block d. Vasomotor paralysis

295. Post anaesthetic shivering may increase metabolic rate by a factor of:
a. 5 b. 4 c. 3 d. 2

296. Gastric emptying time is significantly increased by standard dose of:
a. Methadone b. Scopolamine c. Morphine d. Barbiturates

297. Which of the following anaesthetic agents has been supersceded because of cardiotoxicity:
a. Cyclopropane b. Halothane c. Chloroform d. Diethyl ether.

298. The most common complication in spinal anaesthesia is:
a. Post spinal headache b. Hypotension c. Meningitis d. Arrhythmia

299. The gases which are important in respiratory mechanism:
a. O2 b. CO2 c. NO2 d. CO

300. Which of the following local anaesthetic is more safe in surface and infiltrating anaesthesia?
a. Procaine b. Cocaine c. Lidocaine d. Amethocaine

**Answers

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