1. Why have no prophecies been demonstrated to have been fulfilled?
Why are many Old Testament prophecies too vague to be tested? Why are many Old Testament prophecies "yet to be" fulfilled?
Why has it been impossible to demonstrate that the Old Testament prophecies were written prior to the events forecasted?
2. Why wasn't Tyre destroyed by Nebuchadnezzar as prophesied by Ezekiel (Ezekiel 26)?
When it was destroyed by Alexander the Great, why didn't it remain desolate as prophesied by Ezekiel? Ezekiel 26:14, 27:36, 28:19; Wallace B. Fleming, The History of Tyre, Columbia University Press, 1915, p. 64
3. How can it be that Isaiah prophesied a temporary destruction of Tyre, while Ezekiel prophesied a permanent destruction (Ezekiel 26:14,21; 27:36; 28:19 versus Isaiah 23:13-18)?
4. Why wasn't there a 40-year period in Egypt's history when the whole land was devoid of people and animals, as prophesied by Ezekiel (Ezekiel 29:11-12)?
5. Why is so much of New Testament prophecy incomprehensible?
Why produce a prophecy at all if it cannot be understood?