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Fullfilling All Righteousness?
Question: Isn't the reason Jesus was baptized because he was our priest, and the Law of Moses insisted that all priests be baptized? If so, doesn't this prove that Jesus baptism was a sprinkling and not an immersion? Isn't that what Jesus meant when He said that he wanted to be baptized in order to fulfill all righteousness?
Karen Howell
Answer: No, no, and no. The fact is, this sprinkling or so-called "baptism" was never a requirement of the priesthood; rather, it was a requirement of the tribe of Levi, from which Israel's priests came. But Jesus was of the tribe of Judah, not Levi; so this sprinkling did not apply to Him. Even as Moses led Israel out from slavery and oppression in Egypt and was baptized under the cloud and through the Red Sea, so Jesus was baptized to signify that He was leading the way out from slavery and oppression to sin; Jesus Himself, however, was no more a slave to sin than Moses was a slave in Egypt.
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