JS writes (in response to my view of 1Sam 15:29):
You mentioned "the Lord never says one thing whilst fully intending another."  But see John 6:4-6, where Jesus clearly tested Philip "He Himself knew what He would do."  Do you agree that your statement was in need of Scriptural adjustment? That the Lord in fact can/does say one thing whilst fully intending another to 'test' people?  (Notice the LORD was doing the testing, and already KNEW IN ADVANCE what He was definitely going to do/actually did.)

Two things:

1.  Jesus asks, "Where are we going to buy bread?" - how does this threaten the proposition that, "God does not say one thing whilst fully intending the opposite"?  Our Lord did not LIE, did He?  He merely asked a question.

Furthermore, the passage EXPLICITLY states that Jesus was testing his disciples i.e. we were meant to read it as a 'test scenario'; we are certainly not meant to conclude that God will say one thing ("I repent") whilst fully meaning the opposite ("I don't repent").

2.  I fail to see the relevance of this objection to my interpretation of 1Sam 15:29.  'God does not lie or repent' refers to the non-deceptive nature of God and the fact that Him changing His mind at that time would be equivalent/synonymous with lying.  The fact that He tests people sometimes and knows some things in advance is surely no invalidation of this.

So, no, I don't think that my statement - "God does not say one thing whilst fully intending the opposite" - is 'in need of Scriptural adjustment'...(smile)
 

Regards,
AL

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