Technician Class Question Pool
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* The questions contained within this pool must be used in all
Technician examinations beginning April 15, 2000, and is intended to
be used up through June 30, 2003.
* The correct answer position A,B,C,D appears in parenthesis following
each question number [eg, in T1A01 (B), position B contains the
correct answer text].
Question Pool
ELEMENT 2 - TECHNICIAN CLASS
as released by
Question Pool Committee
National Conference of
Volunteer Examiner Coordinators
February 1, 2000
SUBELEMENT T1 -- COMMISSION'S RULES [9 Exam Questions -- 9 Groups]
T1A Basis and purpose of amateur service and definitions; Station
/Operator license; classes of US amateur licenses, including basic
differences; privileges of the various license classes; term of
licenses; grace periods; modifications of licenses; current mailing
address on file with FCC
T1A01 @N1A02 (B) [97]
Who makes and enforces the rules and regulations of the amateur
service in the US?
A. The Congress of the United States
B. The Federal Communications Commission (FCC)
C. The Volunteer Examiner Coordinators (VECs)
D. The Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI)
T1A02 @N1A06 (D) [97.1]
What are two of the five purposes for the amateur service?
A. To protect historical radio data, and help the public understand
radio history
B. To help foreign countries improve communication and technical
skills, and encourage visits from foreign hams
C. To modernize radio schematic drawings, and increase the pool of
electrical drafting people
D. To increase the number of trained radio operators and electronics
experts, and improve international goodwill
T1A03 @N1A09 (D) [97.3a5]
*Modified C from Educational Review
What is the definition of an amateur station?
A. A station in a public radio service used for radiocommunications
B. A station using radiocommunications for a commercial purpose
C. A station using equipment for training new broadcast operators and
technicians
D. A station in the Amateur Radio service used for
radiocommunications
T1A04 @N1A10 (C) [97.3a12]
What is the definition of a control operator of an amateur station?
A. Anyone who operates the controls of the station
B. Anyone who is responsible for the station's equipment
C. Any licensed amateur operator who is responsible for the station's
transmissions
D. The amateur operator with the highest class of license who is near
the controls of the station
T1A05 @N1B03 (C) [97.5a]
*Modified B for Form 605
Which of the following is required before you can operate an amateur
station in the US?
A. You must hold an FCC operator's training permit for a licensed
radio station
B. You must submit an FCC Form 605 together with a license
examination fee
C. The FCC must grant you an amateur operator/primary station license
D. The FCC must issue you a Certificate of Successful Completion of
Amateur Training
T1A06 @N1B06 (A) [97.9a]
What must happen before you are allowed to operate an amateur station?
A. The FCC database must show that you have been granted an amateur
license
B. You must have written authorization from the FCC
C. You must have written authorization from a Volunteer Examiner
Coordinator
D. You must have a copy of the FCC Rules, Part 97, at your station
location
T1A07 @N1B10 (D) [97.9a]
*Modified Q, A, B, C, D for Rules changes
What are the US amateur operator licenses that a new amateur might
earn?
A. Novice, Technician, General, Advanced
B. Technician, Technician Plus, General, Advanced
C. Novice, Technician, General, Advanced
D. Technician, Technician with Morse code, General, Amateur Extra
T1A08 @N1D12 (C) [97.5a]
How soon after you pass the elements required for your first Amateur
Radio license may you transmit?
A. Immediately
B. 30 days after the test date
C. As soon as the FCC grants you a license
D. As soon as you receive your license from the FCC
T1A09 @N1D11 (A) [97.21a3i]
*Modified Q for form 605 and ULS
How soon before the expiration date of your license should you send
the FCC a completed Form 605 or file with the Universal Licensing
System on the World Wide Web for a renewal?
A. No more than 90 days
B. No more than 30 days
C. Within 6 to 9 months
D. Within 6 months to a year
T1A10 @T1A10 (C) [97.25a]
What is the normal term for which a new amateur station license is
granted?
A. 5 years
B. 7 years
C. 10 years
D. For the lifetime of the licensee
T1A11 @T1A11 (A) [97.21b]
What is the "grace period" during which the FCC will renew an expired
10-year license?
A. 2 years
B. 5 years
C. 10 years
D. There is no grace period
T1A12 @N1D06 (B) [97.23b]
What is one way you may notify the FCC if your mailing address
changes?
A. Fill out an FCC Form 605 using your new address, attach a copy of
your license, and mail it to your local FCC Field Office
B. Fill out an FCC Form 605 using your new address, attach a copy of
your license, and mail it to the FCC office in Gettysburg, PA
C. Call your local FCC Field Office and give them your new address
over the phone or e-mail this information to the local Field Office
D. Call the FCC office in Gettysburg, PA, and give them your new
address over the phone or e-mail this information the FCC
T1B Frequency privileges authorized to the Technician control
operator (VHF/UHF and HF)
T1B01 @New (B) [97.301a]
What are the frequency limits of the 6-meter band in ITU Region 2?
A. 52.0 - 54.5 MHz
B. 50.0 - 54.0 MHz
C. 50.1 - 52.1 MHz
D. 50.0 - 56.0 MHz
T1B02 @New (B) [97.301a]
What are the frequency limits of the 2-meter band in ITU Region 2?
A. 145.0 - 150.5 MHz
B. 144.0 - 148.0 MHz
C. 144.1 - 146.5 MHz
D. 144.0 - 146.0 MHz
T1B03 @N1C05 (B) [97.301f]
*Modified Q for Rules changes (deleted Novice from Q)
What are the frequency limits of the 1.25-meter band in ITU Region 2?
A. 225.0 - 230.5 MHz
B. 222.0 - 225.0 MHz
C. 224.1 - 225.1 MHz
D. 220.0 - 226.0 MHz
T1B04 @New (C) [97.301a]
What are the frequency limits of the 70-centimeter band in ITU Region
2?
A. 430.0 - 440.0 MHz
B. 430.0 - 450.0 MHz
C. 420.0 - 450.0 MHz
D. 432.0 - 435.0 MHz
T1B05 @New (D) [97.301a]
What are the frequency limits of the 33-centimeter band in ITU Region
2?
A. 903 - 927 MHz
B. 905 - 925 MHz
C. 900 - 930 MHz
D. 902 - 928 MHz
T1B06 @N1C06 (B) [97.301a]
*Modified Q answer key for Rules changes (deleted Novice from Q and
changed answer key correct answer)
What are the frequency limits of the 23-centimeter band?
A. 1260 - 1270 MHz
B. 1240 - 1300 MHz
C. 1270 - 1295 MHz
D. 1240 - 1246 MHz
T1B07 @New (A) [97.301a]
What are the frequency limits of the 13-centimeter band in ITU Region
2?
A. 2300 - 2310 MHz and 2390 - 2450 MHz
B. 2300 - 2350 MHz and 2400 - 2450 MHz
C. 2350 - 2380 MHz and 2390 - 2450 MHz
D. 2300 - 2350 MHz and 2380 - 2450 MHz
T1B08 @N1C01 (B) [97.301e]
*Modified Q for Rules changes
What are the frequency limits of the 80-meter band for Technician
class licensees who have passed a Morse code exam?
A. 3500 - 4000 kHz
B. 3675 - 3725 kHz
C. 7100 - 7150 kHz
D. 7000 - 7300 kHz
T1B09 @N1C02 (C) [97.301e]
What are the frequency limits of the 40-meter band in ITU Region 2 for
Technician class licensees who have passed a Morse code exam?
A. 3500 - 4000 kHz
B. 3700 - 3750 kHz
C. 7100 - 7150 kHz
D. 7000 - 7300 kHz
T1B10 @N1C03 (A) [97.301e]
What are the frequency limits of the 15-meter band for Technician
class licensees who have passed a Morse code exam?
A. 21.100 - 21.200 MHz
B. 21.000 - 21.450 MHz
C. 28.000 - 29.700 MHz
D. 28.100 - 28.200 MHz
T1B11 @N1C04 (C) [97.301e]
What are the frequency limits of the 10-meter band for Technician
class licensees who have passed a Morse code exam?
A. 28.000 - 28.500 MHz
B. 28.100 - 29.500 MHz
C. 28.100 - 28.500 MHz
D. 29.100 - 29.500 MHz
T1B12 @T1A09 (C) [97.9b]
*Modified Q, C for Rules changes
If you are a Technician licensee who has passed a Morse code exam,
what is one document you can use to prove that you are authorized to
use certain amateur frequencies below 30 MHz?
A. A certificate from the FCC showing that you have notified them
that you will be using the HF bands
B. A certificate showing that you have attended a class in HF
communications
C. A Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination showing that
you have passed a Morse code exam
D. No special proof is required
T1C Emission privileges authorized to the Technician control operator
(VHF/UHF and HF)
T1C01 @T1B01 (D) [97.305c]
*Modified Q for Rules changes
On what HF band may a Technician licensee use FM phone emission?
A. 10 meters
B. 15 meters
C. 75 meters
D. None
T1C02 @T1B03 (B) [97.305c]
On what frequencies within the 6-meter band may phone emissions be
transmitted?
A. 50.0 - 54.0 MHz only
B. 50.1 - 54.0 MHz only
C. 51.0 - 54.0 MHz only
D. 52.0 - 54.0 MHz only
T1C03 @T1B04 (A) [97.305c]
On what frequencies within the 2-meter band may image emissions be
transmitted?
A. 144.1 - 148.0 MHz only
B. 146.0 - 148.0 MHz only
C. 144.0 - 148.0 MHz only
D. 146.0 - 147.0 MHz only
T1C04 @T1B05 (D) [97.305c]
What frequencies within the 2-meter band are reserved exclusively for
CW operations?
A. 146 - 147 MHz
B. 146.0 - 146.1 MHz
C. 145 - 148 MHz
D. 144.0 - 144.1 MHz
T1C05 @N1E01 (A) [97.305, 97.307f9]
*Modified Q for Rules changes
What emission types are Technician control operators who have passed a
Morse code exam allowed to use in the 80-meter band?
A. CW only
B. Data only
C. RTTY only
D. Phone only
T1C06 @N1E05 (D) [97.305, 97.307f9]
*Modified Q for Rules changes
What emission types are Technician control operators who have passed a
Morse code exam allowed to use from 7100 to 7150 kHz in ITU Region 2?
A. CW and data
B. Phone
C. Data only
D. CW only
T1C07 @N1E07 (C) [97.305]
*Modified Q for Rules changes
What emission types are Technician control operators who have passed a
Morse code exam allowed to use on frequencies from 28.1 to 28.3 MHz?
A. All authorized amateur emission privileges
B. Data or phone
C. CW, RTTY and data
D. CW and phone
T1C08 @N1E08 (C) [97.305, 97.307f10]
*Modified Q for Rules changes
What emission types are Technician control operators who have passed a
Morse code exam allowed to use on frequencies from 28.3 to 28.5 MHz?
A. All authorized amateur emission privileges
B. CW and data
C. CW and single-sideband phone
D. Data and phone
T1C09 @N1E09 (D) [97.305]
*Modified Q for Rules changes
What emission types are Technician control operators allowed to use on
the amateur 1.25-meter band in ITU Region 2?
A. Only CW and phone
B. Only CW and data
C. Only data and phone
D. All amateur emission privileges authorized for use on the band
T1C10 @N1E10 (D) [97.305]
*Modified Q for Rules changes
What emission types are Technician control operators allowed to use on
the amateur 23-centimeter band?
A. Only data and phone
B. Only CW and data
C. Only CW and phone
D. All amateur emission privileges authorized for use on the band
T1C11 @New (C) [97.305c]
On what frequencies within the 70-centimeter band in ITU Region 2 may
image emissions be transmitted?
A. 420.0 - 420.1 MHz only
B. 430.0 - 440.0 MHz only
C. 420.0 - 450.0 MHz only
D. 440.0 - 450.0 MHz only
T1D Responsibility of licensee; station control; control operator
requirements; station identification; points of communication and
operation; business communications
T1D01 @T1A01 (D) [97.3a13]
What is the control point of an amateur station?
A. The on/off switch of the transmitter
B. The input/output port of a packet controller
C. The variable frequency oscillator of a transmitter
D. The location at which the control operator function is performed
T1D02 @N1G02 (C) [97.103a]
Who is responsible for the proper operation of an amateur station?
A. Only the control operator
B. Only the station licensee
C. Both the control operator and the station licensee
D. The person who owns the station equipment
T1D03 @N1G04 (D) [97.103a]
What is your responsibility as a station licensee?
A. You must allow another amateur to operate your station upon
request
B. You must be present whenever the station is operated
C. You must notify the FCC if another amateur acts as the control
operator
D. You are responsible for the proper operation of the station in
accordance with the FCC rules
T1D04 @N1G05 (C) [97.103b]
Who may be the control operator of an amateur station?
A. Any person over 21 years of age
B. Any person over 21 years of age with a General class license or
higher
C. Any licensed amateur chosen by the station licensee
D. Any licensed amateur with a Technician class license or higher
T1D05 @N1G08 (B) [97.105b]
If you are the control operator at the station of another amateur who
has a higher class license than yours, what operating privileges are
you allowed?
A. Any privileges allowed by the higher license
B. Only the privileges allowed by your license
C. All the emission privileges of the higher license, but only the
frequency privileges of your license
D. All the frequency privileges of the higher license, but only the
emission privileges of your license
T1D06 @N1G10 (A) [97.109b]
*Modified Q for Rules changes
When an amateur station is transmitting, where must its control
operator be?
A. At the station's control point
B. Anywhere in the same building as the transmitter
C. At the station's entrance, to control entry to the room
D. Anywhere within 50 km of the station location
T1D07 @N1H01 (C) [97.119a]
How often must an amateur station be identified?
A. At the beginning of a contact and at least every ten minutes after
that
B. At least once during each transmission
C. At least every ten minutes during and at the end of a contact
D. At the beginning and end of each transmission
T1D08 @N1H03 (A) [97.119a]
What identification, if any, is required when two amateur stations
begin communications?
A. No identification is required
B. One of the stations must give both stations' call signs
C. Each station must transmit its own call sign
D. Both stations must transmit both call signs
T1D09 @N1H04 (C) [97.119a]
What identification, if any, is required when two amateur stations end
communications?
A. No identification is required
B. One of the stations must transmit both stations' call signs
C. Each station must transmit its own call sign
D. Both stations must transmit both call signs
T1D10 @N1H06 (B) [97.119a]
What is the longest period of time an amateur station can operate
without transmitting its call sign?
A. 5 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 30 minutes
T1D11 @T1C12 (A) [97.305a]
What emission type may always be used for station identification,
regardless of the transmitting frequency?
A. CW
B. RTTY
C. MCW
D. Phone
T1D12 @T1C16 (C) [97.119e]
If you are a Technician licensee with a Certificate of Successful
Completion of Examination (CSCE) for a Morse code exam, how should you
identify your station when transmitting on the 10 meter band?
A. You must give your call sign followed by the words "plus plus"
B. You must give your call sign followed by the words "temporary
plus"
C. No special form of identification is needed
D. You must give your call sign and the location of the VE
examination where you obtained the CSCE
T1E Third-party communication; authorized and prohibited
transmissions; permissible one-way communication
T1E01 @T1E07 (D) [97.11a2]
What kind of payment is allowed for third-party messages sent by an
amateur station?
A. Any amount agreed upon in advance
B. Donation of repairs to amateur equipment
C. Donation of amateur equipment
D. No payment of any kind is allowed
T1E02 @N1I08 (A) [97.3a44]
What is the definition of third-party communications?
A. A message sent between two amateur stations for someone else
B. Public service communications for a political party
C. Any messages sent by amateur stations
D. A three-minute transmission to another amateur
T1E03 @N1I09 (B) [97.3a44]
What is a "third party" in amateur communications?
A. An amateur station that breaks in to talk
B. A person who is sent a message by amateur communications other
than a control operator who handles the message
C. A shortwave listener who monitors amateur communications
D. An unlicensed control operator
T1E04 @T1E08 (D) [97.115a2]
When are third-party messages allowed to be sent to a foreign country?
A. When sent by agreement of both control operators
B. When the third party speaks to a relative
C. They are not allowed under any circumstances
D. When the US has a third-party agreement with the foreign country
or the third party is qualified to be a control operator
T1E05 @T1E09 (A) [97.115b1]
If you let an unlicensed third party use your amateur station, what
must you do at your station's control point?
A. You must continuously monitor and supervise the third-party's
participation
B. You must monitor and supervise the communication only if contacts
are made in countries that have no third-party communications
agreement with the US
C. You must monitor and supervise the communication only if contacts
are made on frequencies below 30 MHz
D. You must key the transmitter and make the station identification
T1E06 @N1H05 (B) [97.115c]
Besides normal identification, what else must a US station do when
sending third-party communications internationally?
A. The US station must transmit its own call sign at the beginning of
each communication, and at least every ten minutes after that
B. The US station must transmit both call signs at the end of each
communication
C. The US station must transmit its own call sign at the beginning of
each communication, and at least every five minutes after that
D. Each station must transmit its own call sign at the end of each
transmission, and at least every five minutes after that
T1E07 @N1I05 (A) [97.113b]
When is an amateur allowed to broadcast information to the general
public?
A. Never
B. Only when the operator is being paid
C. Only when broadcasts last less than 1 hour
D. Only when broadcasts last longer than 15 minutes
T1E08 @N1I06 (A) [97.113a4, 97.113e]
When is an amateur station permitted to transmit music?
A. Never, except incidental music during authorized rebroadcasts of
space shuttle communications
B. Only if the transmitted music produces no spurious emissions
C. Only if it is used to jam an illegal transmission
D. Only if it is above 1280 MHz, and the music is a live performance
T1E09 @N1I07 (C) [97.113a4]
When is the use of codes or ciphers allowed to hide the meaning of an
amateur message?
A. Only during contests
B. Only during nationally declared emergencies
C. Never, except when special requirements are met
D. Only on frequencies above 1280 MHz
T1E10 @T1E04 (B) [97.3a10, 97.113b]
Which of the following one-way communications may not be transmitted
in the amateur service?
A. Telecommands to model craft
B. Broadcasts intended for the general public
C. Brief transmissions to make adjustments to the station
D. Morse code practice
T1E11 @N1I10 (A) [97.115a2]
If you are allowing a non-amateur friend to use your station to talk
to someone in the US, and a foreign station breaks in to talk to your
friend, what should you do?
A. Have your friend wait until you find out if the US has a third-
party agreement with the foreign station's government
B. Stop all discussions and quickly sign off
C. Since you can talk to any foreign amateurs, your friend may keep
talking as long as you are the control operator
D. Report the incident to the foreign amateur's government
T1E12 @N1I11 (D) [97.115a2]
When are you allowed to transmit a message to a station in a foreign
country for a third party?
A. Anytime
B. Never
C. Anytime, unless there is a third-party agreement between the US
and the foreign government
D. If there is a third-party agreement with the US government, or if
the third party is eligible to be the control operator
T1F Frequency selection and sharing; transmitter power; digital
communications
T1F01 @T1B06 (C) [97.303]
If the FCC rules say that the amateur service is a secondary user of a
frequency band, and another service is a primary user, what does this
mean?
A. Nothing special; all users of a frequency band have equal rights
to operate
B. Amateurs are only allowed to use the frequency band during
emergencies
C. Amateurs are allowed to use the frequency band only if they do not
cause harmful interference to primary users
D. Amateurs must increase transmitter power to overcome any
interference caused by primary users
T1F02 @T1B08 (C) [97.101b]
What rule applies if two amateur stations want to use the same
frequency?
A. The station operator with a lesser class of license must yield the
frequency to a higher-class licensee
B. The station operator with a lower power output must yield the
frequency to the station with a higher power output
C. Both station operators have an equal right to operate on the
frequency
D. Station operators in ITU Regions 1 and 3 must yield the frequency
to stations in ITU Region 2
T1F03 @T1B09 (A) [97.205c]
*Modified Q from Educational Review
If a repeater is causing harmful interference to another repeater and
a frequency coordinator has recommended the operation of one repeater
only, who is responsible for resolving the interference?
A. The licensee of the unrecommended repeater
B. Both repeater licensees
C. The licensee of the recommended repeater
D. The frequency coordinator
T1F04 @T1B10 (D) [97.205c]
*Modified Q from Educational Review
If a repeater is causing harmful interference to another amateur
repeater and a frequency coordinator has recommended the operation of
both repeaters, who is responsible for resolving the interference?
A. The licensee of the repeater that has been recommended for the
longest period of time
B. The licensee of the repeater that has been recommended the most
recently
C. The frequency coordinator
D. Both repeater licensees
T1F05 @T1B12 (D) [97.3b6]
What is the term for the average power supplied to an antenna
transmission line during one RF cycle at the crest of the modulation
envelope?
A. Peak transmitter power
B. Peak output power
C. Average radio-frequency power
D. Peak envelope power
T1F06 @T1B13 (D) [97.313b]
What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an amateur station on
146.52 MHz?
A. 200 watts PEP output
B. 500 watts ERP
C. 1000 watts DC input
D. 1500 watts PEP output
T1F07 @N1F09 (A) [97.313c]
*Modified Q for Rules changes
On which band(s) may a Technician licensee who has passed a Morse code
exam use up to 200 watts PEP output power?
A. 80, 40, 15, and 10 meters
B. 80, 40, 20, and 10 meters
C. 1.25 meters
D. 23 centimeters
T1F08 @N1F01 (D) [97.313a]
What amount of transmitter power must amateur stations use at all
times?
A. 25 watts PEP output
B. 250 watts PEP output
C. 1500 watts PEP output
D. The minimum legal power necessary to communicate
T1F09 @N1F13 (C) [97.3c2]
What name does the FCC use for telemetry, telecommand or computer
communications emissions?
A. CW
B. Image
C. Data
D. RTTY
T1F10 @N1F14 (D) [97.3c7]
What name does the FCC use for narrow-band direct-printing telegraphy
emissions?
A. CW
B. Image
C. MCW
D. RTTY
T1F11 @T1C04 (C) [97.307f5]
What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for packet transmissions on
the 2-meter band?
A. 300 bauds
B. 1200 bauds
C. 19.6 kilobauds
D. 56 kilobauds
T1F12 @T1C06 (B) [97.307f5]
What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data
transmissions on the 6- and 2-meter bands?
A. 56 kilobauds
B. 19.6 kilobauds
C. 1200 bauds
D. 300 bauds
T1G Satellite and space communications; false signals or unidentified
communications; malicious interference
T1G01 @N1I02 (C) [97.3a38]
*Modified D to say International Space Station instead of space
shuttles.
What is an amateur space station?
A. An amateur station operated on an unused frequency
B. An amateur station awaiting its new call letters from the FCC
C. An amateur station located more than 50 kilometers above the
Earth's surface
D. An amateur station that communicates with the International Space
Station
T1G02 @N1I03 (B) [97.207a]
Who may be the licensee of an amateur space station?
A. An amateur holding an Amateur Extra class operator license
B. Any licensed amateur operator
C. Anyone designated by the commander of the spacecraft
D. No one unless specifically authorized by the government
T1G03 @T1E05 (A) [97.209b2]
Which band may NOT be used by Earth stations for satellite
communications?
A. 6 meters
B. 2 meters
C. 70 centimeters
D. 23 centimeters
T1G04 @N1J01 (A) [97.113a4]
When may false or deceptive amateur signals or communications be
transmitted?
A. Never
B. When operating a beacon transmitter in a "fox hunt" exercise
C. When playing a harmless "practical joke"
D. When you need to hide the meaning of a message for secrecy
T1G05 @N1J02 (C) [97.113a4]
If an amateur pretends there is an emergency and transmits the word
"MAYDAY," what is this called?
A. A traditional greeting in May
B. An emergency test transmission
C. False or deceptive signals
D. Nothing special; "MAYDAY" has no meaning in an emergency
T1G06 @N1J07 (C) [97.119a]
When may an amateur transmit unidentified communications?
A. Only for brief tests not meant as messages
B. Only if it does not interfere with others
C. Never, except transmissions from a space station or to control a
model craft
D. Only for two-way or third-party communications
T1G07 @N1J08 (A) [97.119a]
What is an amateur communication called that does not have the
required station identification?
A. Unidentified communications or signals
B. Reluctance modulation
C. Test emission
D. Tactical communication
T1G08 @N1J10 (C) [97.119a]
If an amateur transmits to test access to a repeater without giving
any station identification, what type of communication is this called?
A. A test emission; no identification is required
B. An illegal unmodulated transmission
C. An illegal unidentified transmission
D. A non-communication; no voice is transmitted
T1G09 @N1J06 (C) [97.101d]
When may you deliberately interfere with another station's
communications?
A. Only if the station is operating illegally
B. Only if the station begins transmitting on a frequency you are
using
C. Never
D. You may expect, and cause, deliberate interference because it
can't be helped during crowded band conditions
T1G10 @N1J11 (B) [97.3a22]
If an amateur repeatedly transmits on a frequency already occupied by
a group of amateurs in a net operation, what type of interference is
this called?
A. Break-in interference
B. Harmful or malicious interference
C. Incidental interference
D. Intermittent interference
T1G11 @N1J03 (B) [97.3a22]
What is a transmission called that disturbs other communications?
A. Interrupted CW
B. Harmful interference
C. Transponder signals
D. Unidentified transmissions
T1H Correct language; phonetics; beacons; radio control of model
craft and vehicles
T1H01 @T1D01 (C) [97.119b2]
If you are using a language besides English to make a contact, what
language must you use when identifying your station?
A. The language being used for the contact
B. The language being used for the contact, provided the US has a
third-party communications agreement with that country
C. English
D. Any language of a country that is a member of the International
Telecommunication Union
T1H02 @T1D03 (C) [97.119b2]
What do the FCC Rules suggest you use as an aid for correct station
identification when using phone?
A. A speech compressor
B. Q signals
C. A phonetic alphabet
D. Unique words of your choice
T1H03 @T1D04 (A) [97.119b2]
What is the advantage in using the International Telecommunication
Union (ITU) phonetic alphabet when identifying your station?
A. The words are internationally recognized substitutes for letters
B. There is no advantage
C. The words have been chosen to be easily pronounced by Asian
cultures
D. It preserves traditions begun in the early days of Amateur Radio
T1H04 @T1D05 (A) [97.119b2]
What is one reason to avoid using "cute" phrases or word combinations
to identify your station?
A. They are not easily understood by non-English-speaking amateurs
B. They might offend English-speaking amateurs
C. They do not meet FCC identification requirements
D. They might be interpreted as codes or ciphers intended to obscure
the meaning of your identification
T1H05 @T1D06 (A) [97.3a9]
What is an amateur station called that transmits communications for
the purpose of observation of propagation and reception?
A. A beacon
B. A repeater
C. An auxiliary station
D. A radio control station
T1H06 @T1D07 (B) [97.203c]
What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an amateur station in
beacon operation?
A. 10 watts PEP output
B. 100 watts PEP output
C. 500 watts PEP output
D. 1500 watts PEP output
T1H07 @T1D08 (B) [97.205a]
*Modified A for Rules changes
What minimum class of amateur license must you hold to operate a
beacon or a repeater station?
A. Technician with credit for passing a Morse code exam
B. Technician
C. General
D. Amateur Extra
T1H08 @T1D09 (C) [97.215a]
What minimum information must be on a label affixed to a transmitter
used for telecommand (control) of model craft?
A. Station call sign
B. Station call sign and the station licensee's name
C. Station call sign and the station licensee's name and address
D. Station call sign and the station licensee's class of license
T1H09 @T1D11 (B) [97.215c]
What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station is allowed
when used for telecommand (control) of model craft?
A. One milliwatt
B. One watt
C. 25 watts
D. 100 watts
T1I Emergency communications; broadcasting; indecent and obscene
language
T1I01 @N1I12 (D) [97.405a]
If you hear a voice distress signal on a frequency outside of your
license privileges, what are you allowed to do to help the station in
distress?
A. You are NOT allowed to help because the frequency of the signal is
outside your privileges
B. You are allowed to help only if you keep your signals within the
nearest frequency band of your privileges
C. You are allowed to help on a frequency outside your privileges
only if you use international Morse code
D. You are allowed to help on a frequency outside your privileges in
any way possible
T1I02 @N1I13 (C) [97.403]
When may you use your amateur station to transmit an "SOS" or
"MAYDAY"?
A. Never
B. Only at specific times (at 15 and 30 minutes after the hour)
C. In a life- or property-threatening emergency
D. When the National Weather Service has announced a severe weather
watch
T1I03 @N1I14 (B) [97.405a]
When may you send a distress signal on any frequency?
A. Never
B. In a life- or property-threatening emergency
C. Only at specific times (at 15 and 30 minutes after the hour)
D. When the National Weather Service has announced a severe weather
watch
T1I04 @T1E01 (A) [97.401a]
If a disaster disrupts normal communication systems in an area where
the amateur service is regulated by the FCC, what kinds of
transmissions may stations make?
A. Those that are necessary to meet essential communication needs and
facilitate relief actions
B. Those that allow a commercial business to continue to operate in
the affected area
C. Those for which material compensation has been paid to the amateur
operator for delivery into the affected area
D. Those that are to be used for program production or news gathering
for broadcasting purposes
T1I05 @T1E02 (C) [97.401c]
What information is included in an FCC declaration of a temporary
state of communication emergency?
A. A list of organizations authorized to use radio communications in
the affected area
B. A list of amateur frequency bands to be used in the affected area
C. Any special conditions and special rules to be observed during the
emergency
D. An operating schedule for authorized amateur emergency stations
T1I06 @T1E03 (A) [97.3a10]
What is meant by the term broadcasting?
A. Transmissions intended for reception by the general public, either
direct or relayed
B. Retransmission by automatic means of programs or signals from non-
amateur stations
C. One-way radio communications, regardless of purpose or content
D. One-way or two-way radio communications between two or more
stations
T1I07 @T1E10 (B) [97.113a4]
When may you send obscene words from your amateur station?
A. Only when they do not cause interference to other communications
B. Never; obscene words are not allowed in amateur transmissions
C. Only when they are not retransmitted through a repeater
D. Any time, but there is an unwritten rule among amateurs that they
should not be used on the air
T1I08 @T1E11 (D) [97.113a4]
When may you send indecent words from your amateur station?
A. Only when they do not cause interference to other communications
B. Only when they are not retransmitted through a repeater
C. Any time, but there is an unwritten rule among amateurs that they
should not be used on the air
D. Never; indecent words are not allowed in amateur transmissions
T1I09 @New (D) [97.113a4]
Why is indecent and obscene language prohibited in the Amateur
Service?
A. Because it is offensive to some individuals
B. Because young children may intercept amateur communications with
readily available receiving equipment
C. Because such language is specifically prohibited by FCC Rules
D. All of these choices are correct
T1I10 @NEW (A) [97.113a4]
Where can the official list of prohibited obscene and indecent words
be found?
A. There is no public list of prohibited obscene and indecent words;
if you believe a word is questionable, don't use it in your
communications
B. The list is maintained by the Department of Commerce
C. The list is International, and is maintained by Industry Canada
D. The list is in the "public domain," and can be found in all
amateur study guides
T1I11 [NEW} (D) [97.113b]
Under what conditions may a Technician class operator use his or her
station to broadcast information intended for reception by the general
public?
A. Never, broadcasting is a privilege reserved for Extra and General
class operators only
B. Only when operating in the FM Broadcast band (88.1 to 107.9 MHz)
C. Only when operating in the AM Broadcast band (530 to 1700 kHz)
D. Never, broadcasts intended for reception by the general public are
not permitted in the Amateur Service
SUBELEMENT T2 -- OPERATING PROCEDURES [5 Exam Questions -- 5 Groups]
T2A Preparing to transmit; choosing a frequency for tune-up;
operating or emergencies; morse code; repeater operations and
autopatch
T2A01 @N2A01 (A)
What should you do before you transmit on any frequency?
A. Listen to make sure others are not using the frequency
B. Listen to make sure that someone will be able to hear you
C. Check your antenna for resonance at the selected frequency
D. Make sure the SWR on your antenna feed line is high enough
T2A02 @N2A03 (D)
If you are in contact with another station and you hear an emergency
call for help on your frequency, what should you do?
A. Tell the calling station that the frequency is in use
B. Direct the calling station to the nearest emergency net frequency
C. Call your local Civil Preparedness Office and inform them of the
emergency
D. Stop your QSO immediately and take the emergency call
T2A03 @T2A12 (A)
Why should local amateur communications use VHF and UHF frequencies
instead of HF frequencies?
A. To minimize interference on HF bands capable of long-distance
communication
B. Because greater output power is permitted on VHF and UHF
C. Because HF transmissions are not propagated locally
D. Because signals are louder on VHF and UHF frequencies
T2A04 @T2A14 (B)
How can on-the-air interference be minimized during a lengthy
transmitter testing or loading-up procedure?
A. Choose an unoccupied frequency
B. Use a dummy load
C. Use a non-resonant antenna
D. Use a resonant antenna that requires no loading-up procedure
T2A05 @N2A06 (C)
At what speed should a Morse code CQ call be transmitted?
A. Only speeds below five WPM
B. The highest speed your keyer will operate
C. Any speed at which you can reliably receive
D. The highest speed at which you can control the keyer
T2A06 @T2A04 (C)
What is an autopatch?
A. An automatic digital connection between a US and a foreign amateur
B. A digital connection used to transfer data between a hand-held
radio and a computer
C. A device that allows radio users to access the public telephone
system
D. A video interface allowing images to be patched into a digital
data stream
T2A07 @T2A10 (B)
How do you call another station on a repeater if you know the
station's call sign?
A. Say "break, break 79," then say the station's call sign
B. Say the station's call sign, then identify your own station
C. Say "CQ" three times, then say the station's call sign
D. Wait for the station to call "CQ," then answer it
T2A08 @T2A08 (B)
What is a courtesy tone (used in repeater operations)?
A. A sound used to identify the repeater
B. A sound used to indicate when a transmission is complete
C. A sound used to indicate that a message is waiting for someone
D. A sound used to activate a receiver in case of severe weather
T2A09 @N2A08 (A)
What is the meaning of the procedural signal "DE"?
A. "From" or "this is," as in "W0AIH DE KA9FOX"
B. "Directional Emissions" from your antenna
C. "Received all correctly"
D. "Calling any station"
T2A10 @T2A07 (D)
During commuting rush hours, which type of repeater operation should
be discouraged?
A. Mobile stations
B. Low-power stations
C. Highway traffic information nets
D. Third-party communications nets
T2A11 @T2A18 (D)
What is the proper way to break into a conversation on a repeater?
A. Wait for the end of a transmission and start calling the desired
party
B. Shout, "break, break!" to show that you're eager to join the
conversation
C. Turn on an amplifier and override whoever is talking
D. Say your call sign during a break between transmissions
T2B Definition and proper use; courteous operation; repeater
frequency coordination; morse code
T2B01 @N2B09 (A)
When using a repeater to communicate, which of the following do you
need to know about the repeater?
A. Its input frequency and offset
B. Its call sign
C. Its power level
D. Whether or not it has an autopatch
T2B02 @N2B11 (C)
What is an autopatch?
A. Something that automatically selects the strongest signal to be
repeated
B. A device that connects a mobile station to the next repeater if it
moves out of range of the first
C. A device that allows repeater users to make telephone calls from
their stations
D. A device that locks other stations out of a repeater when there is
an important conversation in progress
T2B03 @N2B12 (D)
What is the purpose of a repeater time-out timer?
A. It lets a repeater have a rest period after heavy use
B. It logs repeater transmit time to predict when a repeater will
fail
C. It tells how long someone has been using a repeater
D. It limits the amount of time someone can transmit on a repeater
T2B04 @N2B13 (B)
What is a CTCSS (or PL) tone?
A. A special signal used for telecommand control of model craft
B. A sub-audible tone, added to a carrier, which may cause a receiver
to accept a signal
C. A tone used by repeaters to mark the end of a transmission
D. A special signal used for telemetry between amateur space stations
and Earth stations
T2B05 @T2A01 (A)
What is the usual input/output frequency separation for repeaters in
the 2-meter band?
A. 600 kHz
B. 1.0 MHz
C. 1.6 MHz
D. 5.0 MHz
T2B06 @T2A02 (C)
What is the usual input/output frequency separation for repeaters in
the 1.25-meter band?
A. 600 kHz
B. 1.0 MHz
C. 1.6 MHz
D. 5.0 MHz
T2B07 @T2A03 (D)
What is the usual input/output frequency separation for repeaters in
the 70-centimeter band?
A. 600 kHz
B. 1.0 MHz
C. 1.6 MHz
D. 5.0 MHz
T2B08 @T2A05 (B)
What is the purpose of repeater operation?
A. To cut your power bill by using someone else's higher power system
B. To help mobile and low-power stations extend their usable range
C. To transmit signals for observing propagation and reception
D. To communicate with stations in services other than amateur
T2B09 @T2A11 (A)
What is a repeater called that is available for anyone to use?
A. An open repeater
B. A closed repeater
C. An autopatch repeater
D. A private repeater
T2B10 @T2A16 (C)
Why should you pause briefly between transmissions when using a
repeater?
A. To check the SWR of the repeater
B. To reach for pencil and paper for third-party communications
C. To listen for anyone wanting to break in
D. To dial up the repeater's autopatch
T2B11 @T2A17 (A)
Why should you keep transmissions short when using a repeater?
A. A long transmission may prevent someone with an emergency from
using the repeater
B. To see if the receiving station operator is still awake
C. To give any listening non-hams a chance to respond
D. To keep long-distance charges down
T2C Simplex operations; RST signal reporting; choice of equipment for
desired communications; communications modes including amateur
television (ATV), packet radio; Q signals, procedural signals and
abbreviations
T2C01 @N2B14 (A)
What is simplex operation?
A. Transmitting and receiving on the same frequency
B. Transmitting and receiving over a wide area
C. Transmitting on one frequency and receiving on another
D. Transmitting one-way communications
T2C02 @N2B15 (B)
When should you use simplex operation instead of a repeater?
A. When the most reliable communications are needed
B. When a contact is possible without using a repeater
C. When an emergency telephone call is needed
D. When you are traveling and need some local information
T2C03 @T2B01 (C)
Why should simplex be used where possible, instead of using a
repeater?
A. Signal range will be increased
B. Long distance toll charges will be avoided
C. The repeater will not be tied up unnecessarily
D. Your antenna's effectiveness will be better tested
T2C04 @T2B02 (A)
If you are talking to a station using a repeater, how would you find
out if you could communicate using simplex instead?
A. See if you can clearly receive the station on the repeater's input
frequency
B. See if you can clearly receive the station on a lower frequency
band
C. See if you can clearly receive a more distant repeater
D. See if a third station can clearly receive both of you
T2C05 @N2A13 (D)
What does RST mean in a signal report?
A. Recovery, signal strength, tempo
B. Recovery, signal speed, tone
C. Readability, signal speed, tempo
D. Readability, signal strength, tone
T2C06 @T2B07 (D)
What is the meaning of: "Your signal report is five nine plus 20
dB..."?
A. Your signal strength has increased by a factor of 100
B. Repeat your transmission on a frequency 20 kHz higher
C. The bandwidth of your signal is 20 decibels above linearity
D. A relative signal-strength meter reading is 20 decibels greater
than strength 9
T2C07 @N2A07 (D)
What is the meaning of the procedural signal "CQ"?
A. "Call on the quarter hour"
B. "New antenna is being tested" (no station should answer)
C. "Only the called station should transmit"
D. "Calling any station"
T2C08 @N2A16 (C)
What is a QSL card in the amateur service?
A. A letter or postcard from an amateur pen pal
B. A Notice of Violation from the FCC
C. A written acknowledgment of communications between two amateurs
D. A postcard reminding you when your license will expire
T2C09 @N2A17 (C)
What is the correct way to call CQ when using voice?
A. Say "CQ" once, followed by "this is," followed by your call sign
spoken three times
B. Say "CQ" at least five times, followed by "this is," followed by
your call sign spoken once
C. Say "CQ" three times, followed by "this is," followed by your call
sign spoken three times
D. Say "CQ" at least ten times, followed by "this is," followed by
your call sign spoken once
T2C10 @N2A18 (D)
How should you answer a voice CQ call?
A. Say the other station's call sign at least ten times, followed by
"this is," then your call sign at least twice
B. Say the other station's call sign at least five times
phonetically, followed by "this is," then your call sign at least once
C. Say the other station's call sign at least three times, followed
by "this is," then your call sign at least five times phonetically
D. Say the other station's call sign once, followed by "this is,"
then your call sign given phonetically
T2C11 @T2A09 (A)
What is the meaning of: "Your signal is full quieting..."?
A. Your signal is strong enough to overcome all receiver noise
B. Your signal has no spurious sounds
C. Your signal is not strong enough to be received
D. Your signal is being received, but no audio is being heard
T2D Distress calling and emergency drills and communications --
operations and equipment; Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service
(RACES)
T2D01 @T2C01 (A)
What is the proper distress call to use when operating phone?
A. Say "MAYDAY" several times
B. Say "HELP" several times
C. Say "EMERGENCY" several times
D. Say "SOS" several times
T2D02 @T2C02 (D)
What is the proper distress call to use when operating CW?
A. MAYDAY
B. QRRR
C. QRZ
D. SOS
T2D03 @T2C03 (A)
What is the proper way to interrupt a repeater conversation to signal
a distress call?
A. Say "BREAK" twice, then your call sign
B. Say "HELP" as many times as it takes to get someone to answer
C. Say "SOS," then your call sign
D. Say "EMERGENCY" three times
T2D04 @T2C04 (B)
What is one reason for using tactical call signs such as "command
post" or "weather center" during an emergency?
A. They keep the general public informed about what is going on
B. They are more efficient and help coordinate public-service
communications
C. They are required by the FCC
D. They increase goodwill between amateurs
T2D05 @T2C05 (D)
What type of messages concerning a person's well-being are sent into
or out of a disaster area?
A. Routine traffic
B. Tactical traffic
C. Formal message traffic
D. Health and Welfare traffic
T2D06 @T2C06 (B)
What are messages called that are sent into or out of a disaster area
concerning the immediate safety of human life?
A. Tactical traffic
B. Emergency traffic
C. Formal message traffic
D. Health and Welfare traffic
T2D07 @T2C07 (B)
Why is it a good idea to have a way to operate your amateur station
without using commercial AC power lines?
A. So you may use your station while mobile
B. So you may provide communications in an emergency
C. So you may operate in contests where AC power is not allowed
D. So you will comply with the FCC rules
T2D08 @T2C08 (C)
What is the most important accessory to have for a hand-held radio in
an emergency?
A. An extra antenna
B. A portable amplifier
C. Several sets of charged batteries
D. A microphone headset for hands-free operation
T2D09 @T2C09 (C)
Which type of antenna would be a good choice as part of a portable HF
amateur station that could be set up in case of an emergency?
A. A three-element quad
B. A three-element Yagi
C. A dipole
D. A parabolic dish
T2D10 @T2C11 (A)
What is the maximum number of hours allowed per week for RACES drills?
A. One
B. Seven, but not more than one hour per day
C. Eight
D. As many hours as you want
T2D11 @T2C12 (D)
How must you identify messages sent during a RACES drill?
A. As emergency messages
B. As amateur traffic
C. As official government messages
D. As drill or test messages
T2E Voice communications and phonetics; SSB/CW weak signal
operations; radioteleprinting; packet; special operations
T2E01 @N2A23 (A)
To make your call sign better understood when using voice
transmissions, what should you do?
A. Use Standard International Phonetics for each letter of your call
B. Use any words that start with the same letters as your call sign
for each letter of your call
C. Talk louder
D. Turn up your microphone gain
T2E02 @N2B03 (B)
What does the abbreviation "RTTY" stand for?
A. "Returning to you", meaning "your turn to transmit"
B. Radioteletype
C. A general call to all digital stations
D. Morse code practice over the air
T2E03 @N2B04 (C)
What does "connected" mean in a packet-radio link?
A. A telephone link is working between two stations
B. A message has reached an amateur station for local delivery
C. A transmitting station is sending data to only one receiving
station; it replies that the data is being received correctly
D. A transmitting and receiving station are using a digipeater, so no
other contacts can take place until they are finished
T2E04 @N2B05 (D)
What does "monitoring" mean on a packet-radio frequency?
A. The FCC is copying all messages
B. A member of the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC's Compliance and
Information Bureau is copying all messages
C. A receiving station is displaying all messages sent to it, and
replying that the messages are being received correctly
D. A receiving station is displaying all messages on the frequency,
and is not replying to any messages
T2E05 @N2B06 (A)
What is a digipeater?
A. A packet-radio station that retransmits only data that is marked
to be retransmitted
B. A packet-radio station that retransmits any data that it receives
C. A repeater that changes audio signals to digital data
D. A repeater built using only digital electronics parts
T2E06 @N2B07 (B)
What does "network" mean in packet radio?
A. A way of connecting terminal-node controllers by telephone so data
can be sent over long distances
B. A way of connecting packet-radio stations so data can be sent over
long distances
C. The wiring connections on a terminal-node controller board
D. The programming in a terminal-node controller that rejects other
callers if a station is already connected
T2E07 @T2B10 (B)
When should digital transmissions be used on 2-meter simplex voice
frequencies?
A. In between voice syllables
B. Digital operations should be avoided on simplex voice frequencies
C. Only in the evening
D. At any time, so as to encourage the best use of the band
T2E08 @T2B09 (A)
Which of the following modes of communication are NOT available to a
Technician class operator?
A. CW and SSB on HF bands
B. Amateur television (ATV)
C. EME (Moon bounce)
D. VHF packet, CW and SSB
T2E09 @N2B02 (B)
What speed should you use when answering a CQ call using RTTY?
A. Half the speed of the received signal
B. The same speed as the received signal
C. Twice the speed of the received signal
D. Any speed, since RTTY systems adjust to any signal speed
T2E10 @N1H12 (C) [97.11]
When may you operate your amateur station aboard a commercial
aircraft?
A. At any time
B. Only while the aircraft is not in flight
C. Only with the pilot's specific permission and not while the
aircraft is operating under Instrument Flight Rules
D. Only if you have written permission from the commercial airline
company and not during takeoff and landing
T2E11 @N1H09 (D) [97.5a]
When may you operate your amateur station somewhere in the US besides
the address listed on your license?
A. Only during times of emergency
B. Only after giving proper notice to the FCC
C. During an emergency or an FCC-approved emergency practice
D. Whenever you want to
SUBELEMENT T3 -- RADIO-WAVE PROPAGATION [3 Exam Questions -- 3 Groups]
T3A Line of sight; reflection of VHF/UHF signals
T3A01 @T3A01 (B)
How are VHF signals propagated within the range of the visible
horizon?
A. By sky wave
B. By line of sight
C. By plane wave
D. By geometric refraction
T3A02 @N3A01 (A)
When a signal travels in a straight line from one antenna to another,
what is this called?
A. Line-of-sight propagation
B. Straight line propagation
C. Knife-edge diffraction
D. Tunnel ducting
T3A03 @N3A02 (B)
How do VHF and UHF radio waves usually travel from a transmitting
antenna to a receiving antenna?
A. They bend through the ionosphere
B. They go in a straight line
C. They wander in any direction
D. They move in a circle going either east or west from the
transmitter
T3A04 @T3A12 (C)
What type of propagation usually occurs from one hand-held VHF
transceiver to another nearby?
A. Tunnel propagation
B. Sky-wave propagation
C. Line-of-sight propagation
D. Auroral propagation
T3A05 @N3A10 (A)
What causes the ionosphere to form?
A. Solar radiation ionizing the outer atmosphere
B. Temperature changes ionizing the outer atmosphere
C. Lightning ionizing the outer atmosphere
D. Release of fluorocarbons into the atmosphere
T3A06 @N3A11 (C)
What type of solar radiation is most responsible for ionization in the
outer atmosphere?
A. Thermal
B. Non-ionized particle
C. Ultraviolet
D. Microwave
T3A07 @N3A15 (C)
Which two daytime ionospheric regions combine into one region at
night?
A. E and F1
B. D and E
C. F1 and F2
D. E1 and E2
T3A08 @New (C)
Which ionospheric region becomes one region at night, but separates
into two separate regions during the day?
A. D
B. E
C. F
D. All of these choices
T3A09 @New (B)
Ultraviolet solar radiation is most responsible for ionization in what
part of the atmosphere?
A. Inner
B. Outer
C. All of these choices
D. None of these choices
T3A10 @New (A)
What part of our atmosphere is formed by solar radiation ionizing the
outer atmosphere
A. Ionosphere
B. Troposphere
C. Ecosphere
D. Stratosphere
T3A11 @N3A18 (C)
What can happen to VHF or UHF signals going towards a metal-framed
building?
A. They will go around the building
B. They can be bent by the ionosphere
C. They can be easily reflected by the building
D. They are sometimes scattered in the ecosphere
T3B Tropospheric ducting or bending; amateur satellite and EME
operations
T3B01 @T3A02 (C)
Ducting occurs in which region of the atmosphere?
A. F2
B. Ecosphere
C. Troposphere
D. Stratosphere
T3B02 @T3A03 (A)
What effect does tropospheric bending have on 2-meter radio waves?
A. It lets you contact stations farther away
B. It causes them to travel shorter distances
C. It garbles the signal
D. It reverses the sideband of the signal
T3B03 @T3A04 (D)
What causes tropospheric ducting of radio waves?
A. A very low pressure area
B. An aurora to the north
C. Lightning between the transmitting and receiving stations
D. A temperature inversion
T3B04 @T3A05 (B)
What causes VHF radio waves to be propagated several hundred miles
over oceans?
A. A polar air mass
B. A widespread temperature inversion
C. An overcast of cirriform clouds
D. A high-pressure zone
T3B05 @T3A06 (A)
In which of the following frequency ranges does tropospheric ducting
most often occur?
A. UHF
B. MF
C. HF
D. VLF
T3B06 @T3A08 (A)
What weather condition may cause tropospheric ducting?
A. A stable high-pressure system
B. An unstable low-pressure system
C. A series of low-pressure waves
D. Periods of heavy rainfall
T3B07 @T3A11 (C)
How does the signal loss for a given path through the troposphere vary
with frequency?
A. There is no relationship
B. The path loss decreases as the frequency increases
C. The path loss increases as the frequency increases
D. There is no path loss at all
T3B08 @T3C05 (B)
Why are high-gain antennas normally used for EME (moonbounce)
communications?
A. To reduce the scattering of the reflected signal as it returns to
Earth
B. To overcome the extreme path losses of this mode
C. To reduce the effects of polarization changes in the received
signal
D. To overcome the high levels of solar noise at the receiver
T3B09 @T3C07 (D)
Which of the following antenna systems would be the best choice for an
EME (moonbounce) station?
A. A single dipole antenna
B. An isotropic antenna
C. A ground-plane antenna
D. A high-gain array of Yagi antennas
T3B10 @T3C10 (B)
When is it necessary to use a higher transmitter power level when
conducting satellite communications?
A. When the satellite is at its perigee
B. When the satellite is low to the horizon
C. When the satellite is fully illuminated by the sun
D. When the satellite is near directly overhead
T3B11 @T3C11 (C)
Which of the following conditions must be met before two stations can
conduct real-time communications through a satellite?
A. Both stations must use circularly polarized antennas
B. The satellite must be illuminated by the sun during the
communications
C. The satellite must be in view of both stations simultaneously
D. Both stations must use high-gain antenna systems
T3C Ionospheric propagation, causes and variation; maximum usable
frequency; Sporadic-E propagation; ground wave, HF propagation
characteristics; sunspots and the sunspot cycle
T3C01 @T3B01 (D)
Which region of the ionosphere is mainly responsible for absorbing
MF/HF radio signals during the daytime?
A. The F2 region
B. The F1 region
C. The E region
D. The D region
T3C02 @T3B05 (C)
If you are receiving a weak and distorted signal from a distant
station on a frequency close to the maximum usable frequency, what
type of propagation is probably occurring?
A. Ducting
B. Line-of-sight
C. Scatter
D. Ground-wave
T3C03 @T3B14 (A)
In relation to sky-wave propagation, what does the term "maximum
usable frequency" (MUF) mean?
A. The highest frequency signal that will reach its intended
destination
B. The lowest frequency signal that will reach its intended
destination
C. The highest frequency signal that is most absorbed by the
ionosphere
D. The lowest frequency signal that is most absorbed by the
ionosphere
T3C04 @N3A03 (D)
When a signal travels along the surface of the Earth, what is this
called?
A. Sky-wave propagation
B. Knife-edge diffraction
C. E-region propagation
D. Ground-wave propagation
T3C05 @N3A05 (A)
When a signal is returned to Earth by the ionosphere, what is this
called?
A. Sky-wave propagation
B. Earth-Moon-Earth propagation
C. Ground-wave propagation
D. Tropospheric propagation
T3C06 @N3A07 (C)
What is a skip zone?
A. An area covered by ground-wave propagation
B. An area covered by sky-wave propagation
C. An area that is too far away for ground-wave propagation, but too
close for sky-wave propagation
D. An area that is too far away for ground-wave or sky-wave
propagation
T3C07 @N3A12 (B)
Which ionospheric region is closest to the Earth?
A. The A region
B. The D region
C. The E region
D. The F region
T3C08 @N3A13 (D)
Which region of the ionosphere is mainly responsible for long-
distance sky-wave radio communications?
A. D region
B. E region
C. F1 region
D. F2 region
T3C09 @N3A14 (B)
Which of the ionospheric regions may split into two regions only
during the daytime?
A. Troposphere
B. F
C. Electrostatic
D. D
T3C10 @N3A16 (A)
How does the number of sunspots relate to the amount of ionization in
the ionosphere?
A. The more sunspots there are, the greater the ionization
B. The more sunspots there are, the less the ionization
C. Unless there are sunspots, the ionization is zero
D. Sunspots do not affect the ionosphere
T3C11 @N3A17 (C)
How long is an average sunspot cycle?
A. 2 years
B. 5 years
C. 11 years
D. 17 years
SUBELEMENT T4 -- AMATEUR RADIO PRACTICES [4 Exam Questions -- 4
Groups]
T4A Lightning protection and station grounding; safety interlocks,
antenna installation safety procedures; dummy antennas
T4A01 @N4A04 (C)
How can an antenna system best be protected from lightning damage?
A. Install a balun at the antenna feed point
B. Install an RF choke in the antenna feed line
C. Ground all antennas when they are not in use
D. Install a fuse in the antenna feed line
T4A02 @N4A05 (D)
How can amateur station equipment best be protected from lightning
damage?
A. Use heavy insulation on the wiring
B. Never turn off the equipment
C. Disconnect the ground system from all radios
D. Disconnect all equipment from the power lines and antenna cables
T4A03 @N4A06 (B)
For best protection from electrical shock, what should be grounded in
an amateur station?
A. The power supply primary
B. All station equipment
C. The antenna feed line
D. The AC power mains
T4A04 @N4B01 (D)
Why would there be an interlock switch in a high-voltage power supply
to turn off the power if its cabinet is opened?
A. To keep dangerous RF radiation from leaking out through an open
cabinet
B. To keep dangerous RF radiation from coming in through an open
cabinet
C. To turn the power supply off when it is not being used
D. To keep anyone opening the cabinet from getting shocked by
dangerous high voltages
T4A05 @N4B05 (C)
Why should you wear a hard hat and safety glasses if you are on the
ground helping someone work on an antenna tower?
A. So you won't be hurt if the tower should accidentally fall
B. To keep RF energy away from your head during antenna testing
C. To protect your head from something dropped from the tower
D. So someone passing by will know that work is being done on the
tower and will stay away
T4A06 @N4B08 (D)
What safety factors must you consider when using a bow and arrow or
slingshot and weight to shoot an antenna-support line over a tree?
A. You must ensure that the line is strong enough to withstand the
shock of shooting the weight
B. You must ensure that the arrow or weight has a safe flight path if
the line breaks
C. You must ensure that the bow and arrow or slingshot is in good
working condition
D. All of these choices are correct
T4A07 @N4B09 (B)
Which of the following is the best way to install your antenna in
relation to overhead electric power lines?
A. Always be sure your antenna wire is higher than the power line,
and crosses it at a 90-degree angle
B. Always be sure your antenna and feed line are well clear of any
power lines
C. Always be sure your antenna is lower than the power line, and
crosses it at a small angle
D. Only use vertical antennas within 100 feet of a power line
T4A08 @T4D04 (B)
What device is used in place of an antenna during transmitter tests so
that no signal is radiated?
A. An antenna matcher
B. A dummy antenna
C. A low-pass filter
D. A decoupling resistor
T4A09 @T4D05 (A)
Why would you use a dummy antenna?
A. For off-the-air transmitter testing
B. To reduce output power
C. To give comparative signal reports
D. To allow antenna tuning without causing interference
T4A10 @T4D06 (A)
What minimum rating should a dummy antenna have for use with a 100
watt single-sideband phone transmitter?
A. 100 watts continuous
B. 141 watts continuous
C. 175 watts continuous
D. 200 watts continuous
T4A11 @T4D08 (B)
Would a 100 watt light bulb make a good dummy load for tuning a
transceiver?
A. Yes; a light bulb behaves exactly like a dummy load
B. No; the impedance of the light bulb changes as the filament gets
hot
C. No; the light bulb would act like an open circuit
D. No; the light bulb would act like a short circuit
T4B Electrical wiring, including switch location, dangerous voltages
and currents; SWR meaning and measurements; SWR meters
T4B01 @T4A01 (C)
Where should the green wire in a three-wire AC line cord be connected
in a power supply?
A. To the fuse
B. To the "hot" side of the power switch
C. To the chassis
D. To the white wire
T4B02 @T4A10 (A)
What is the minimum voltage that is usually dangerous to humans?
A. 30 volts
B. 100 volts
C. 1000 volts
D. 2000 volts
T4B03 @T4A14 (A)
How much electrical current flowing through the human body will
probably be fatal?
A. As little as 1/10 of an ampere
B. Approximately 10 amperes
C. More than 20 amperes
D. Current through the human body is never fatal
T4B04 @T4A15 (A)
Which body organ can be fatally affected by a very small amount of
electrical current?
A. The heart
B. The brain
C. The liver
D. The lungs
T4B05 @N4C02 (C)
What does an SWR reading of less than 1.5:1 mean?
A. An impedance match that is too low
B. An impedance mismatch; something may be wrong with the antenna
system
C. A fairly good impedance match
D. An antenna gain of 1.5
T4B06 @N4C05 (A)
What does a very high SWR reading mean?
A. The antenna is the wrong length, or there may be an open or
shorted connection somewhere in the feed line
B. The signals coming from the antenna are unusually strong, which
means very good radio conditions
C. The transmitter is putting out more power than normal, showing
that it is about to go bad
D. There is a large amount of solar radiation, which means very poor
radio conditions
T4B07 @N4C06 (B)
If an SWR reading at the low frequency end of an amateur band is
2.5:1, increasing to 5:1 at the high frequency end of the same band,
what does this tell you about your 1/2-wavelength dipole antenna?
A. The antenna is broadbanded
B. The antenna is too long for operation on the band
C. The antenna is too short for operation on the band
D. The antenna is just right for operation on the band
T4B08 @N4C07 (C)
If an SWR reading at the low frequency end of an amateur band is 5:1,
decreasing to 2.5:1 at the high frequency end of the same band, what
does this tell you about your 1/2-wavelength dipole antenna?
A. The antenna is broadbanded
B. The antenna is too long for operation on the band
C. The antenna is too short for operation on the band
D. The antenna is just right for operation on the band
T4B09 @N4C10 (D)
What instrument is used to measure the relative impedance match
between an antenna and its feed line?
A. An ammeter
B. An ohmmeter
C. A voltmeter
D. An SWR meter
T4B10 @T4C09 (C)
If you use an SWR meter designed to operate on 3-30 MHz for VHF
measurements, how accurate will its readings be?
A. They will not be accurate
B. They will be accurate enough to get by
C. If it properly calibrates to full scale in the set position, they
may be accurate
D. They will be accurate providing the readings are multiplied by 4.5
T4B11 @N4C01 (B)
What does an SWR reading of 1:1 mean?
A. An antenna for another frequency band is probably connected
B. The best impedance match has been attained
C. No power is going to the antenna
D. The SWR meter is broken
T4C Meters and their placement in circuits, including volt, amp,
multi, peak-reading and RF watt; ratings of fuses and switches
T4C01 @T4B01 (B)
How is a voltmeter usually connected to a circuit under test?
A. In series with the circuit
B. In parallel with the circuit
C. In quadrature with the circuit
D. In phase with the circuit
T4C02 @T4B02 (A)
How is an ammeter usually connected to a circuit under test?
A. In series with the circuit
B. In parallel with the circuit
C. In quadrature with the circuit
D. In phase with the circuit
T4C03 @T4B03 (A)
Where should an RF wattmeter be connected for the most accurate
readings of transmitter output power?
A. At the transmitter output connector
B. At the antenna feed point
C. One-half wavelength from the transmitter output
D. One-half wavelength from the antenna feed point
T4C04 @T4B07 (D)
For which measurements would you normally use a multimeter?
A. SWR and power
B. Resistance, capacitance and inductance
C. Resistance and reactance
D. Voltage, current and resistance
T4C05 @T4B08 (B)
What might happen if you switch a multimeter to measure resistance
while you have it connected to measure voltage?
A. The multimeter would read half the actual voltage
B. It would probably destroy the meter circuitry
C. The multimeter would read twice the actual voltage
D. Nothing unusual would happen; the multimeter would measure the
circuit's resistance
T4C06 @T4B09 (C)
If you switch a multimeter to read microamps and connect it into a
circuit drawing 5 amps, what might happen?
A. The multimeter would read half the actual current
B. The multimeter would read twice the actual current
C. It would probably destroy the meter circuitry
D. The multimeter would read a very small value of current
T4C07 @T4B10 (B)
At what line impedance do most RF watt meters usually operate?
A. 25 ohms
B. 50 ohms
C. 100 ohms
D. 300 ohms
T4C08 @T4B11 (A)
What does a directional wattmeter measure?
A. Forward and reflected power
B. The directional pattern of an antenna
C. The energy used by a transmitter
D. Thermal heating in a load resistor
T4C09 @T4B12 (B)
If a directional RF wattmeter reads 90 watts forward power and 10
watts reflected power, what is the actual transmitter output power?
A. 10 watts
B. 80 watts
C. 90 watts
D. 100 watts
T4C10 @T4B14 (A)
Why might you use a peak-reading RF wattmeter at your station?
A. To make sure your transmitter's output power is not higher than
that authorized by your license class
B. To make sure your transmitter is not drawing too much power from
the AC line
C. To make sure all your transmitter's power is being radiated by
your antenna
D. To measure transmitter input and output power at the same time
T4C11 @T4B15 (C)
What could happen to your transceiver if you replace its blown 5 amp
AC line fuse with a 30 amp fuse?
A. The 30-amp fuse would better protect your transceiver from using
too much current
B. The transceiver would run cooler
C. The transceiver could use more current than 5 amps and a fire
could occur
D. The transceiver would not be able to produce as much RF output
T4D RFI and its complications, resolution and responsibility
T4D01 @N4D01 (C)
What is meant by receiver overload?
A. Too much voltage from the power supply
B. Too much current from the power supply
C. Interference caused by strong signals from a nearby source
D. Interference caused by turning the volume up too high
T4D02 @N4D02 (A)
What is meant by harmonic radiation?
A. Unwanted signals at frequencies that are multiples of the
fundamental (chosen) frequency
B. Unwanted signals that are combined with a 60-Hz hum
C. Unwanted signals caused by sympathetic vibrations from a nearby
transmitter
D. Signals that cause skip propagation to occur
T4D03 @N4D06 (B)
What type of filter might be connected to an amateur HF transmitter to
cut down on harmonic radiation?
A. A key-click filter
B. A low-pass filter
C. A high-pass filter
D. A CW filter
T4D04 @N4D08 (C)
If your neighbor reports television interference whenever you are
transmitting from your amateur station, no matter what frequency band
you use, what is probably the cause of the interference?
A. Too little transmitter harmonic suppression
B. Receiver VR tube discharge
C. Receiver overload
D. Incorrect antenna length
T4D05 @N4D09 (D)
If your neighbor reports television interference on one or two
channels only when you are transmitting on the 15-meter band, what is
probably the cause of the interference?
A. Too much low-pass filtering on the transmitter
B. De-ionization of the ionosphere near your neighbor's TV antenna
C. TV receiver front-end overload
D. Harmonic radiation from your transmitter
T4D06 @N4D10 (B)
What type of filter should be connected to a TV receiver as the first
step in trying to prevent RF overload from an amateur HF station
transmission?
A. Low-pass
B. High-pass
C. Band pass
D. Notch
T4D07 @N4D11 (B)
What first step should be taken at a cable TV receiver when trying to
prevent RF overload from an amateur HF station transmission?
A. Install a low-pass filter in the cable system transmission line
B. Tighten all connectors and inspect the cable system transmission
line
C. Make sure the center conductor of the cable system transmission
line is well grounded
D. Install a ceramic filter in the cable system transmission line
T4D08 @N4D12 (C)
What effect might a break in a cable television transmission line have
on amateur communications?
A. Cable lines are shielded and a break cannot affect amateur
communications
B. Harmonic radiation from the TV receiver may cause the amateur
transmitter to transmit off-frequency
C. TV interference may result when the amateur station is
transmitting, or interference may occur to the amateur receiver
D. The broken cable may pick up very high voltages when the amateur
station is transmitting
T4D09 @N4D13 (A)
If you are told that your amateur station is causing television
interference, what should you do?
A. First make sure that your station is operating properly, and that
it does not cause interference to your own television
B. Immediately turn off your transmitter and contact the nearest FCC
office for assistance
C. Connect a high-pass filter to the transmitter output and a low-
pass filter to the antenna-input terminals of the television
D. Continue operating normally, because you have no reason to worry
about the interference
T4D10 @N4D14 (C)
If harmonic radiation from your transmitter is causing interference to
television receivers in your neighborhood, who is responsible for
taking care of the interference?
A. The owners of the television receivers are responsible
B. Both you and the owners of the television receivers share the
responsibility
C. You alone are responsible, since your transmitter is causing the
problem
D. The FCC must decide if you or the owners of the television
receivers are responsible
T4D11 @N4D15 (D)
If signals from your transmitter are causing front-end overload in
your neighbor's television receiver, who is responsible for taking
care of the interference?
A. You alone are responsible, since your transmitter is causing the
problem
B. Both you and the owner of the television receiver share the
responsibility
C. The FCC must decide if you or the owner of the television receiver
are responsible
D. The owner of the television receiver is responsible
SUBELEMENT T5 -- ELECTRICAL PRINCIPLES [3 Exam Questions -- 3 Groups]
T5A Metric prefixes, e.g. pico, nano, micro, milli, centi, kilo,
mega, giga; concepts, units and measurement of current, voltage;
concept of conductor and insulator; concept of open and short circuits
T5A01 @N5A03 (B)
*Modified Q,A-D
If a dial marked in kilohertz shows a reading of 28450 kHz, what would
it show if it were marked in hertz?
A. 284,500 Hz
B. 28,450,000 Hz
C. 284,500,000 Hz
D. 284,500,000,000 Hz
T5A02 @N5A05 (C)
If an ammeter marked in amperes is used to measure a 3000-milliampere
current, what reading would it show?
A. 0.003 amperes
B. 0.3 amperes
C. 3 amperes
D. 3,000,000 amperes
T5A03 @N5A09 (C)
How many hertz are in a kilohertz?
A. 10
B. 100
C. 1000
D. 1,000,000
T5A04 @N5B02 (C)
What is the basic unit of electric current?
A. The volt
B. The watt
C. The ampere
D. The ohm
T5A05 @N5B03 (D)
Which instrument would you use to measure electric current?
A. An ohmmeter
B. A wavemeter
C. A voltmeter
D. An ammeter
T5A06 @N5B08 (B)
Which instrument would you use to measure electric potential or
electromotive force?
A. An ammeter
B. A voltmeter
C. A wavemeter
D. An ohmmeter
T5A07 @N5B05 (A)
What is the basic unit of electromotive force (EMF)?
A. The volt
B. The watt
C. The ampere
D. The ohm
T5A08 @N5B12 (C)
What are three good electrical conductors?
A. Copper, gold, mica
B. Gold, silver, wood
C. Gold, silver, aluminum
D. Copper, aluminum, paper
T5A09 @N5B13 (A)
What are four good electrical insulators?
A. Glass, air, plastic, porcelain
B. Glass, wood, copper, porcelain
C. Paper, glass, air, aluminum
D. Plastic, rubber, wood, carbon
T5A10 @N5C09 (C)
Which electrical circuit can have no current?
A. A closed circuit
B. A short circuit
C. An open circuit
D. A complete circuit
T5A11 @N5C11 (D)
Which electrical circuit draws too much current?
A. An open circuit
B. A dead circuit
C. A closed circuit
D. A short circuit
T5B Concepts, units and calculation of resistance, inductance and
capacitance values in series and parallel circuits
T5B01 @T5A01 (D)
What does resistance do in an electric circuit?
A. It stores energy in a magnetic field
B. It stores energy in an electric field
C. It provides electrons by a chemical reaction
D. It opposes the flow of electrons
T5B02 @T5A02 (B)
What is the definition of 1 ohm?
A. The reactance of a circuit in which a 1-microfarad capacitor is
resonant at 1 MHz
B. The resistance of a circuit in which a 1-amp current flows when 1
volt is applied
C. The resistance of a circuit in which a 1-milliamp current flows
when 1 volt is applied
D. The reactance of a circuit in which a 1-millihenry inductor is
resonant at 1 MHz
T5B03 @T5A03 (C)
What is the basic unit of resistance?
A. The farad
B. The watt
C. The ohm
D. The resistor
T5B04 @T5A04 (D)
What is one reason resistors are used in electronic circuits?
A. To block the flow of direct current while allowing alternating
current to pass
B. To block the flow of alternating current while allowing direct
current to pass
C. To increase the voltage of the circuit
D. To control the amount of current that flows for a particular
applied voltage
T5B05 @T5A05 (D)
What is the ability to store energy in a magnetic field called?
A. Admittance
B. Capacitance
C. Resistance
D. Inductance
T5B06 @T5A08 (B)
What is one reason inductors are used in electronic circuits?
A. To block the flow of direct current while allowing alternating
current to pass
B. To reduce the flow of AC while allowing DC to pass freely
C. To change the time constant of the applied voltage
D. To change alternating current to direct current
T5B07 @T5A09 (D)
What is the ability to store energy in an electric field called?
A. Inductance
B. Resistance
C. Tolerance
D. Capacitance
T5B08 @T5A12 (A)
What is one reason capacitors are used in electronic circuits?
A. To block the flow of direct current while allowing alternating
current to pass
B. To block the flow of alternating current while allowing direct
current to pass
C. To change the time constant of the applied voltage
D. To change alternating current to direct current
T5B09 @T5B10 (D)
If two resistors are connected in series, what is their total
resistance?
A. The difference between the individual resistor values
B. Always less than the value of either resistor
C. The product of the individual resistor values
D. The sum of the individual resistor values
T5B10 @T5B13 (A)
If two equal-value inductors are connected in parallel, what is their
total inductance?
A. Half the value of one inductor
B. Twice the value of one inductor
C. The same as the value of either inductor
D. The value of one inductor times the value of the other
T5B11 @T5B14 (C)
If two equal-value capacitors are connected in series, what is their
total capacitance?
A. Twice the value of one capacitor
B. The same as the value of either capacitor
C. Half the value of either capacitor
D. The value of one capacitor times the value of the other
T5C Ohm's Law (any calculations will be kept to a very low level - no
fractions or decimals) and the concepts of energy and power, and;
concepts of frequency, including AC vs. DC, frequency units, and
wavelength
T5C01 @T5B01 (C)
How is the current in a DC circuit directly calculated when the
voltage and resistance are known?
A. I = R x E [current equals resistance multiplied by voltage]
B. I = R / E [current equals resistance divided by voltage]
C. I = E / R [current equals voltage divided by resistance]
D. I = E / P [current equals voltage divided by power]
T5C02 @T5B02 (B)
How is the resistance in a DC circuit calculated when the voltage and
current are known?
A. R = I / E [resistance equals current divided by voltage]
B. R = E / I [resistance equals voltage divided by current]
C. R = I x E [resistance equals current multiplied by voltage]
D. R = P / E [resistance equals power divided by voltage]
T5C03 @T5B03 (C)
How is the voltage in a DC circuit directly calculated when the
current and resistance are known?
A. E = I / R [voltage equals current divided by resistance]
B. E = R / I [voltage equals resistance divided by current]
C. E = I x R [voltage equals current multiplied by resistance]
D. E = I / P [voltage equals current divided by power]
T5C04 @N5C03 (C)
If a current of 2 amperes flows through a 50-ohm resistor, what is the
voltage across the resistor?
A. 25 volts
B. 52 volts
C. 100 volts
D. 200 volts
T5C05 @N5C04 (B)
If a 100-ohm resistor is connected to 200 volts, what is the current
through the resistor?
A. 1 ampere
B. 2 amperes
C. 300 amperes
D. 20,000 amperes
T5C06 @N5C05 (B)
If a current of 3 amperes flows through a resistor connected to 90
volts, what is the resistance?
A. 3 ohms
B. 30 ohms
C. 93 ohms
D. 270 ohms
T5C07 @N5C06 (C)
What term describes how fast electrical energy is used?
A. Resistance
B. Current
C. Power
D. Voltage
T5C08 @N5C08 (B)
What is the basic unit of electrical power?
A. The ohm
B. The watt
C. The volt
D. The ampere
T5C09 @N5D14 (A)
What happens to a signal's wavelength as its frequency increases?
A. It gets shorter
B. It gets longer
C. It stays the same
D. It disappears
T5C10 @N5D03 (A)
What is the name of a current that flows back and forth, first in one
direction, then in the opposite direction?
A. An alternating current
B. A direct current
C. A rough current
D. A steady state current
T5C11 @N5D01 (B)
What is the name of a current that flows only in one direction?
A. An alternating current
B. A direct current
C. A normal current
D. A smooth current
SUBELEMENT T6 -- CIRCUIT COMPONENTS [2 Exam Questions -- 2 Groups]
T6A Electrical function and/or schematic representation of resistor,
switch, fuse, or battery; resistor construction types, variable and
fixed, color code, power ratings, schematic symbols
T6A01 @T6A02 (C)
What does a variable resistor or potentiometer do?
A. Its resistance changes when AC is applied to it
B. It transforms a variable voltage into a constant voltage
C. Its resistance changes when its slide or contact is moved
D. Its resistance changes when it is heated
T6A02 @T6A12 (A)
Which symbol of Figure T6-1 represents a fixed resistor?
A. Symbol 2
B. Symbol 3
C. Symbol 4
D. Symbol 5
T6A03 @N6A02 (D)
Why would you use a double-pole, single-throw switch?
A. To switch one input to one output
B. To switch one input to either of two outputs
C. To switch two inputs at the same time, one input to either of two
outputs, and the other input to either of two outputs
D. To switch two inputs at the same time, one input to one output,
and the other input to the other output
T6A04 @N6A10 (A)
In Figure N6-2, which symbol represents a single-pole, single-throw
switch?
A. Symbol 1
B. Symbol 2
C. Symbol 3
D. Symbol 4
T6A05 @N6A03 (D)
Why would you use a fuse?
A. To create a short circuit when there is too much current in a
circuit
B. To change direct current into alternating current
C. To change alternating current into direct current
D. To create an open circuit when there is too much current in a
circuit
T6A06 @N6A08 (A)
In Figure N6-1, which symbol represents a fuse?
A. Symbol 1
B. Symbol 3
C. Symbol 5
D. Symbol 7
T6A07 @N6A04 (A)
Which of these components has a positive and a negative side?
A. A battery
B. A potentiometer
C. A fuse
D. A resistor
T6A08 @N6A09 (D)
In Figure N6-1, which symbol represents a single-cell battery?
A. Symbol 7
B. Symbol 5
C. Symbol 1
D. Symbol 4
T6A09 @T6A08 (C)
Why would a large size resistor be used instead of a smaller one of
the same resistance value?
A. For better response time
B. For a higher current gain
C. For greater power dissipation
D. For less impedance in the circuit
T6A10 @T6A05 (A)
What do the first three color bands on a resistor indicate?
A. The value of the resistor in ohms
B. The resistance tolerance in percent
C. The power rating in watts
D. The resistance material
T6A11 @T6A10 (A)
Which tolerance rating would indicate a high-precision resistor?
A. 0.1%
B. 5%
C. 10%
D. 20%
T6B Electrical function and/or schematic representation of a ground,
antenna, inductor, capacitor, transistor, integrated circuit;
construction of variable and fixed inductors and capacitors; factors
affecting inductance and capacitance
T6B01 @N6B01 (A)
Which component can amplify a small signal using low voltages?
A. A PNP transistor
B. A variable resistor
C. An electrolytic capacitor
D. A multiple-cell battery
T6B02 @N6B03 (A)
Which component is used to radiate radio energy?
A. An antenna
B. An earth ground
C. A chassis ground
D. A potentiometer
T6B03 @N6B04 (D)
In Figure N6-1, which symbol represents an earth ground?
A. Symbol 2
B. Symbol 5
C. Symbol 6
D. Symbol 8
T6B04 @N6B06 (D)
In Figure N6-1, which symbol represents an antenna?
A. Symbol 2
B. Symbol 3
C. Symbol 6
D. Symbol 7
T6B05 @N6B07 (D)
In Figure N6-3, which symbol represents an NPN transistor?
A. Symbol 1
B. Symbol 2
C. Symbol 3
D. Symbol 4
T6B06 @T6B01 (A)
Which symbol of Figure T6-2 represents a fixed-value capacitor?
A. Symbol 1
B. Symbol 2
C. Symbol 3
D. Symbol 4
T6B07 @T6B06 (C)
In Figure T6-2, which symbol represents a variable capacitor?
A. Symbol 1
B. Symbol 2
C. Symbol 3
D. Symbol 4
T6B08 @T6B08 (C)
What does an inductor do?
A. It stores energy electrostatically and opposes a change in voltage
B. It stores energy electrochemically and opposes a change in current
C. It stores energy electromagnetically and opposes a change in
current
D. It stores energy electromechanically and opposes a change in
voltage
T6B09 @T6B10 (A)
As an iron core is inserted in a coil, what happens to the coil's
inductance?
A. It increases
B. It decreases
C. It stays the same
D. It disappears
T6B10 @T6B13 (B)
What does a capacitor do?
A. It stores energy electrochemically and opposes a change in current
B. It stores energy electrostatically and opposes a change in voltage
C. It stores energy electromagnetically and opposes a change in
current
D. It stores energy electromechanically and opposes a change in
voltage
T6B11 @T6B14 (A)
What determines the capacitance of a capacitor?
A. The material between the plates, the area of one side of one
plate, the number of plates and the spacing between the plates
B. The material between the plates, the number of plates and the size
of the wires connected to the plates
C. The number of plates, the spacing between the plates and whether
the dielectric material is N type or P type
D. The material between the plates, the area of one plate, the number
of plates and the material used for the protective coating
SUBELEMENT T7 -- PRACTICAL CIRCUITS [2 Exam Questions -- 2 Groups]
T7A Functional layout of station components including transmitter,
transceiver, receiver, power supply, antenna, antenna switch, antenna
feed line, impedance-matching device, SWR meter; station layout and
accessories for radiotelephone, radioteleprinter (RTTY) or packet
T7A01 @N7A01 (B)
What would you connect to your transceiver if you wanted to switch it
between several antennas?
A. A terminal-node switch
B. An antenna switch
C. A telegraph key switch
D. A high-pass filter
T7A02 @N7A03 (D)
What connects your transceiver to your antenna?
A. A dummy load
B. A ground wire
C. The power cord
D. A feed line
T7A03 @N7A07 (A)
If your mobile transceiver works in your car but not in your home,
what should you check first?
A. The power supply
B. The speaker
C. The microphone
D. The SWR meter
T7A04 @N7A08 (A)
What does an antenna tuner do?
A. It matches a transceiver output impedance to the antenna system
impedance
B. It helps a receiver automatically tune in stations that are far
away
C. It switches an antenna system to a transceiver when sending, and
to a receiver when listening
D. It switches a transceiver between different kinds of antennas
connected to one feed line
T7A05 @N7A09 (B)
In Figure N7-1, if block 1 is a transceiver and block 3 is a dummy
antenna, what is block 2?
A. A terminal-node switch
B. An antenna switch
C. A telegraph key switch
D. A high-pass filter
T7A06 @N7A11 (D)
In Figure N7-1, if block 1 is a transceiver and block 2 is an antenna
switch, what is block 3?
A. A terminal-node switch
B. An SWR meter
C. A telegraph key switch
D. A dummy antenna
T7A07 @N7A13 (C)
In Figure N7-2, if block 1 is a transceiver and block 3 is an antenna
switch, what is block 2?
A. A terminal-node switch
B. A dipole antenna
C. An SWR meter
D. A high-pass filter
T7A08 @N7A15 (B)
In Figure N7-3, if block 1 is a transceiver and block 2 is an SWR
meter, what is block 3?
A. An antenna switch
B. An antenna tuner
C. A key-click filter
D. A terminal-node controller
T7A09 @N7B05 (D)
What would you connect to a transceiver for voice operation?
A. A splatter filter
B. A terminal-voice controller
C. A receiver audio filter
D. A microphone
T7A10 @N7B06 (A)
What would you connect to a transceiver for RTTY operation?
A. A modem and a teleprinter or computer system
B. A computer, a printer and a RTTY refresh unit
C. A data-inverter controller
D. A modem, a monitor and a DTMF keypad
T7A11 @N7B11 (B)
In packet-radio operation, what equipment connects to a terminal-node
controller?
A. A transceiver and a modem
B. A transceiver and a terminal or computer system
C. A DTMF keypad, a monitor and a transceiver
D. A DTMF microphone, a monitor and a transceiver
T7B Transmitter and receiver block diagrams; purpose and operation of
low-pass, high-pass and band-pass filters
T7B01 @T7A03 (D)
What circuit uses a limiter and a frequency discriminator to produce
an audio signal?
A. A double-conversion receiver
B. A variable-frequency oscillator
C. A superheterodyne receiver
D. An FM receiver
T7B02 @T7A04 (D)
What circuit is pictured in Figure T7-1 if block 1 is a variable-
frequency oscillator?
A. A packet-radio transmitter
B. A crystal-controlled transmitter
C. A single-sideband transmitter
D. A VFO-controlled transmitter
T7B03 @T7A05 (A)
What circuit is pictured in Figure T7-1 if block 1 is a crystal
oscillator?
A. A crystal-controlled transmitter
B. A VFO-controlled transmitter
C. A single-sideband transmitter
D. A CW transceiver
T7B04 @T7A08 (C)
What type of circuit does Figure T7-2 represent if block 1 is a
product detector?
A. A simple phase modulation receiver
B. A simple FM receiver
C. A simple CW and SSB receiver
D. A double-conversion multiplier
T7B05 @T7A09 (D)
If Figure T7-2 is a diagram of a simple single-sideband receiver, what
type of circuit should be shown in block 1?
A. A high pass filter
B. A ratio detector
C. A low pass filter
D. A product detector
T7B06 @T7A10 (D)
What circuit is pictured in Figure T7-3, if block 1 is a frequency
discriminator?
A. A double-conversion receiver
B. A variable-frequency oscillator
C. A superheterodyne receiver
D. An FM receiver
T7B07 @T7A16 (C)
Why do modern HF transmitters have a built-in low-pass filter in their
RF output circuits?
A. To reduce RF energy below a cutoff point
B. To reduce low-frequency interference to other amateurs
C. To reduce harmonic radiation
D. To reduce fundamental radiation
T7B08 @T7A17 (A)
What circuit blocks RF energy above and below certain limits?
A. A band-pass filter
B. A high-pass filter
C. An input filter
D. A low-pass filter
T7B09 @T7A18 (A)
What type of filter is used in the IF section of receivers to block
energy outside a certain frequency range?
A. A band-pass filter
B. A high-pass filter
C. An input filter
D. A low-pass filter
T7B10 @T7A19 (C)
What circuit function is found in all types of receivers?
A. An audio filter
B. A beat-frequency oscillator
C. A detector
D. An RF amplifier
T7B11 @T7A20 (D)
What would you use to connect a dual-band antenna to a mobile
transceiver which has separate VHF and UHF outputs?
A. A dual-needle SWR meter
B. A full-duplex phone patch
C. Twin high-pass filters
D. A duplexer
SUBELEMENT T8 -- SIGNALS AND EMISSIONS [2 Exam Questions -- 2 Groups]
T8A RF carrier, definition and typical bandwidths; harmonics and
unwanted signals; chirp; superimposed hum; equipment and adjustments
to help reduce interference to others
T8A01 @T8B02 (C)
What is an RF carrier?
A. The part of a transmitter that carries the signal to the
transmitter antenna
B. The part of a receiver that carries the signal from the antenna to
the detector
C. A radio frequency signal that is modulated to produce a
radiotelephone signal
D. A modulation that changes a radio frequency signal to produce a
radiotelephone signal
T8A02 @T8B07 (C)
Which list of emission types is in order from the narrowest bandwidth
to the widest bandwidth?
A. RTTY, CW, SSB voice, FM voice
B. CW, FM voice, RTTY, SSB voice
C. CW, RTTY, SSB voice, FM voice
D. CW, SSB voice, RTTY, FM voice
T8A03 @T8B08 (D)
What is the usual bandwidth of a single-sideband amateur signal?
A. 1 kHz
B. 2 kHz
C. Between 3 and 6 kHz
D. Between 2 and 3 kHz
T8A04 @T8B09 (C)
What is the usual bandwidth of a frequency-modulated amateur signal?
A. Less than 5 kHz
B. Between 5 and 10 kHz
C. Between 10 and 20 kHz
D. Greater than 20 kHz
T8A05 @T8A02 (C)
What is the name for emissions produced by switching a transmitter's
output on and off?
A. Phone
B. Test
C. CW
D. RTTY
T8A06 @T8A03 (B)
What term describes the process of combining an information signal
with a radio signal?
A. Superposition
B. Modulation
C. Demodulation
D. Phase-inversion
T8A07 @T8B11 (B)
What is the result of over deviation in an FM transmitter?
A. Increased transmitter power
B. Out-of-channel emissions
C. Increased transmitter range
D. Poor carrier suppression
T8A08 @T8B12 (C)
What causes splatter interference?
A. Keying a transmitter too fast
B. Signals from a transmitter's output circuit are being sent back to
its input circuit
C. Overmodulation of a transmitter
D. The transmitting antenna is the wrong length
T8A09 @N8B01 (C)
How does the frequency of a harmonic compare to the desired
transmitting frequency?
A. It is slightly more than the desired frequency
B. It is slightly less than the desired frequency
C. It is exactly two, or three, or more times the desired frequency
D. It is much less than the desired frequency
T8A10 @N8B15 (B)
What should you check if you change your transceiver's microphone from
a mobile type to a base station type?
A. Check the CTCSS levels on the oscilloscope
B. Make an on-the-air radio check to ensure the quality of your
signal
C. Check the amount of current the transceiver is now using
D. Check to make sure the frequency readout is now correct
T8A11 @N8B16 (C)
Why is good station grounding needed when connecting your computer to
your transceiver to receive high-frequency data signals?
A. Good grounding raises the receiver's noise floor
B. Good grounding protects the computer from nearby lightning strikes
C. Good grounding will minimize stray noise on the receiver
D. FCC rules require all equipment to be grounded
T8B Concepts and types of modulation: CW, phone, RTTY and data
emission types; FM deviation
T8B01 @T8A04 (B)
What is the name for packet-radio emissions?
A. CW
B. Data
C. Phone
D. RTTY
T8B02 @T8A06 (D)
What is the name of the voice emission most used on VHF/UHF repeaters?
A. Single-sideband phone
B. Pulse-modulated phone
C. Slow-scan phone
D. Frequency-modulated phone
T8B03 @T8A08 (A)
What is meant by the upper-sideband (USB)?
A. The part of a single-sideband signal that is above the carrier
frequency
B. The part of a single-sideband signal that is below the carrier
frequency
C. Any frequency above 10 MHz
D. The carrier frequency of a single-sideband signal
T8B04 @N8A06 (C)
What does the term "phone transmissions" usually mean?
A. The use of telephones to set up an amateur contact
B. A phone patch between amateur radio and the telephone system
C. AM, FM or SSB voice transmissions by radiotelephony
D. Placing the telephone handset near a transceiver's microphone and
speaker to relay a telephone call
T8B05 @N8A07 (A)
How is an HF RTTY signal usually produced?
A. By frequency-shift keying an RF signal
B. By on/off keying an RF signal
C. By digital pulse-code keying of an unmodulated carrier
D. By on/off keying an audio-frequency signal
T8B06 @N8A11 (D)
What are two advantages to using modern data-transmission techniques
for communications?
A. Very simple and low-cost equipment
B. No parity-checking required and high transmission speed
C. Easy for mobile stations to use and no additional cabling required
D. High transmission speed and communications reliability
T8B07 @N8A05 (A)
Which sideband is commonly used for 10-meter phone operation?
A. Upper sideband
B. Lower sideband
C. Amplitude-compandored sideband
D. Double sideband
T8B08 @N8B11 (D)
What can you do if you are told your FM hand-held or mobile
transceiver is over-deviating?
A. Talk louder into the microphone
B. Let the transceiver cool off
C. Change to a higher power level
D. Talk farther away from the microphone
T8B09 @N8B12 (C)
What does chirp mean?
A. An overload in a receiver's audio circuit whenever CW is received
B. A high-pitched tone that is received along with a CW signal
C. A small change in a transmitter's frequency each time it is keyed
D. A slow change in transmitter frequency as the circuit warms up
SUBELEMENT T9 -- ANTENNAS AND FEED LINES [2 Exam Questions -- 2
Groups]
T9A Wavelength vs. antenna length; 1/2 wavelength dipole and 1/4
wavelength vertical antennas; multiband antennas
T9A01 @N9A01 (D)
How do you calculate the length (in feet) of a half-wavelength dipole
antenna?
A. Divide 150 by the antenna's operating frequency (in MHz) [150/f(in
MHz)]
B. Divide 234 by the antenna's operating frequency (in MHz) [234/f
(in MHz)]
C. Divide 300 by the antenna's operating frequency (in MHz) [300/f
(in MHz)]
D. Divide 468 by the antenna's operating frequency (in MHz) [468/f
(in MHz)]
T9A02 @N9A02 (B)
How do you calculate the length (in feet) of a quarter-wavelength
vertical antenna?
A. Divide 150 by the antenna's operating frequency (in MHz) [150/f
(in MHz)]
B. Divide 234 by the antenna's operating frequency (in MHz) [234/f
(in MHz)]
C. Divide 300 by the antenna's operating frequency (in MHz) [300/f
(in MHz)]
D. Divide 468 by the antenna's operating frequency (in MHz) [468/f
(in MHz)]
T9A03 New (C)
How long should you make a quarter-wavelength vertical antenna for 440
MHz (measured to the nearest inch)?
A. 12 inches
B. 9 inches
C. 6 inches
D. 3 inches
T9A04 New (A)
How long should you make a quarter-wavelength vertical antenna for
28.450 MHz (measured to the nearest foot)?
A. 8 ft
B. 12 ft
C. 16 ft
D. 24 ft
T9A05 New (C)
How long should you make a quarter-wavelength vertical antenna for 146
MHz (measured to the nearest inch)?
A. 112 inches
B. 50 inches
C. 19 inches
D. 12 inches
T9A06 @N9A08 (A)
If an antenna is made longer, what happens to its resonant frequency?
A. It decreases
B. It increases
C. It stays the same
D. It disappears
T9A07 @N9A09 (B)
If an antenna is made shorter, what happens to its resonant frequency?
A. It decreases
B. It increases
C. It stays the same
D. It disappears
T9A08 @N9A10 (A)
How could you decrease the resonant frequency of a dipole antenna?
A. Lengthen the antenna
B. Shorten the antenna
C. Use less feed line
D. Use a smaller size feed line
T9A09 @N9A11 (B)
How could you increase the resonant frequency of a dipole antenna?
A. Lengthen the antenna
B. Shorten the antenna
C. Use more feed line
D. Use a larger size feed line
T9A10 @N9A12 (A)
What is one advantage to using a multiband antenna?
A. You can operate on several bands with a single feed line
B. Multiband antennas always have high gain
C. You can transmit on several frequencies simultaneously
D. Multiband antennas offer poor harmonic suppression
T9A11 @N9A13 (D)
What is one disadvantage to using a multiband antenna?
A. It must always be used with a balun
B. It will always have low gain
C. It cannot handle high power
D. It can radiate unwanted harmonics
T9B Parasitic beam directional antennas; polarization, impedance
matching and SWR, feed lines, balanced vs. unbalanced (including
baluns)
T9B01 @T9A01 (C)
What is a directional antenna?
A. An antenna that sends and receives radio energy equally well in
all directions
B. An antenna that cannot send and receive radio energy by skywave or
skip propagation
C. An antenna that sends and receives radio energy mainly in one
direction
D. An antenna that uses a directional coupler to measure power
transmitted
T9B02 @T9A02 (A)
How is a Yagi antenna constructed?
A. Two or more straight, parallel elements are fixed in line with
each other
B. Two or more square or circular loops are fixed in line with each
other
C. Two or more square or circular loops are stacked inside each other
D. A straight element is fixed in the center of three or more
elements that angle toward the ground
T9B03 @T9A04 (B)
How many directly driven elements do most parasitic beam antennas
have?
A. None
B. One
C. Two
D. Three
T9B04 @T9A05 (A)
What is a parasitic beam antenna?
A. An antenna in which some elements obtain their radio energy by
induction or radiation from a driven element
B. An antenna in which wave traps are used to magnetically couple the
elements
C. An antenna in which all elements are driven by direct connection
to the feed line
D. An antenna in which the driven element obtains its radio energy by
induction or radiation from director elements
T9B05 @T9A06 (D)
What are the parasitic elements of a Yagi antenna?
A. The driven element and any reflectors
B. The director and the driven element
C. Only the reflectors (if any)
D. Any directors or any reflectors
T9B06 @T9A07 (B)
What is a cubical quad antenna?
A. Four straight, parallel elements in line with each other, each
approximately 1/2-electrical wavelength long
B. Two or more parallel four-sided wire loops, each approximately
one-electrical wavelength long
C. A vertical conductor 1/4-electrical wavelength high, fed at the
bottom
D. A center-fed wire 1/2-electrical wavelength long
T9B07 @T9A10 (D)
What type of non-directional antenna is easy to make at home and works
well outdoors?
A. A Yagi
B. A delta loop
C. A cubical quad
D. A ground plane
T9B08 @T9B06 (D)
What electromagnetic-wave polarization does most man-made electrical
noise have in the HF and VHF spectrum?
A. Horizontal
B. Left-hand circular
C. Right-hand circular
D. Vertical
T9B09 @T9B09 (D)
What does standing-wave ratio mean?
A. The ratio of maximum to minimum inductances on a feed line
B. The ratio of maximum to minimum capacitances on a feed line
C. The ratio of maximum to minimum impedances on a feed line
D. The ratio of maximum to minimum voltages on a feed line
T9B10 @N9C12 (A)
Where would you install a balun to feed a dipole antenna with 50-ohm
coaxial cable?
A. Between the coaxial cable and the antenna
B. Between the transmitter and the coaxial cable
C. Between the antenna and the ground
D. Between the coaxial cable and the ground
T9B11 @N9C02 (B)
Why does coaxial cable make a good antenna feed line?
A. You can make it at home, and its impedance matches most amateur
antennas
B. It is weatherproof, and it can be used near metal objects
C. It is weatherproof, and its impedance is higher than that of most
amateur antennas
D. It can be used near metal objects, and its impedance is higher
than that of most amateur antennas
SUBELEMENT T0 -- RF SAFETY [3 Exam Questions -- 3 Groups]
T0A RF safety fundamentals, terms and definitions
T0A01 @T0A01 (B)
Why is it a good idea to adhere to the FCC's Rules for using the
minimum power needed when you are transmitting with your hand-held
radio?
A. Large fines are always imposed on operators violating this rule
B. To reduce the level of RF radiation exposure to the operator's
head
C. To reduce calcification of the NiCd battery pack
D. To eliminate self oscillation in the receiver RF amplifier
T0A02 @T0A02 (D)
Over what frequency range are the FCC Regulations most stringent for
RF radiation exposure?
A. Frequencies below 300 kHz
B. Frequencies between 300 kHz and 3 MHz
C. Frequencies between 3 MHz and 30 MHz
D. Frequencies between 30 MHz and 300 MHz
T0A03 @T0A03 (C)
What is one biological effect to the eye that can result from RF
exposure?
A. The strong magnetic fields can cause blurred vision
B. The strong magnetic fields can cause polarization lens
C. It can cause heating, which can result in the formation of
cataracts
D. It can cause heating, which can result in astigmatism
T0A04 @T0A05 (C)
In the far field, as the distance from the source increases, how does
power density vary?
A. The power density is proportional to the square of the distance
B. The power density is proportional to the square root of the
distance
C. The power density is proportional to the inverse square of the
distance
D. The power density is proportional to the inverse cube of the
distance
T0A05 @T0A06 (D)
In the near field, how does the field strength vary with distance from
the source?
A. It always increases with the cube of the distance
B. It always decreases with the cube of the distance
C. It varies as a sine wave with distance
D. It depends on the type of antenna being used
T0A06 @T0A09 (A)
Why should you never look into the open end of a microwave feed horn
antenna while the transmitter is operating?
A. You may be exposing your eyes to more than the maximum permissible
exposure of RF radiation
B. You may be exposing your eyes to more than the maximum permissible
exposure level of infrared radiation
C. You may be exposing your eyes to more than the maximum permissible
exposure level of ultraviolet radiation
D. All of these choices are correct
T0A07 @T0A10 (D)
Why are Amateur Radio operators required to meet the FCC RF radiation
exposure limits?
A. The standards are applied equally to all radio services
B. To ensure that RF radiation occurs only in a desired direction
C. Because amateur station operations are more easily adjusted than
those of commercial radio services
D. To ensure a safe operating environment for amateurs, their
families and neighbors
T0A08 @T0A11 (A)
Why are the maximum permissible exposure (MPE) levels not uniform
throughout the radio spectrum?
A. The human body absorbs energy differently at various frequencies
B. Some frequency ranges have a cooling effect while others have a
heating effect on the body
C. Some frequency ranges have no effect on the body
D. Radiation at some frequencies can have a catalytic effect on the
body
T0A09 @T0B01 (C)
What does the term "specific absorption rate" or SAR mean?
A. The degree of RF energy consumed by the ionosphere
B. The rate at which transmitter energy is lost because of a poor
feed line
C. The rate at which RF energy is absorbed into the human body
D. The amount of signal weakening caused by atmospheric phenomena
T0A10 @T0B04 (D)
On what value are the maximum permissible exposure (MPE) limits based?
A. The square of the mass of the exposed body
B. The square root of the mass of the exposed body
C. The whole-body specific gravity (WBSG)
D. The whole-body specific absorption rate (SAR)
T0B RF safety rules and guidelines
T0B01 @T0C09 (C)
Where will you find the applicable FCC RF radiation maximum
permissible exposure (MPE) limits defined?
A. FCC Part 97 Amateur Service Rules and Regulations
B. FCC Part 15 Radiation Exposure Rules and Regulations
C. FCC Part 1 and Office of Engineering and Technology (OET) Bulletin
65
D. Environmental Protection Agency Regulation 65
T0B02 @T0C10 (A)
What factors must you consider if your repeater station antenna will
be located at a site that is occupied by antennas for transmitters in
other services?
A. Your radiated signal must be considered as part of the total RF
radiation from the site when determining RF radiation exposure levels
B. Each individual transmitting station at a multiple transmitter
site must meet the RF radiation exposure levels
C. Each station at a multiple-transmitter site may add no more than
1% of the maximum permissible exposure (MPE) for that site
D. Amateur stations are categorically excluded from RF radiation
exposure evaluation at multiple-transmitter sites
T0B03 @N0C05 (D)
To determine compliance with the maximum permitted exposure (MPE)
levels, safe exposure levels for RF energy are averaged for an
"uncontrolled" RF environment over what time period?
A. 6 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 30 minutes
T0B04 @N0C06 (A)
To determine compliance with the maximum permitted exposure (MPE)
levels, safe exposure levels for RF energy are averaged for a
"controlled" RF environment over what time period?
A. 6 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 30 minutes
T0B05 @T0C11 (B)
Which of the following categories describes most common amateur use of
a hand-held transceiver?
A. Mobile devices
B. Portable devices
C. Fixed devices
D. None of these choices is correct
T0B06 @N0C15 (A)
*Modified A for new rules
How does an Amateur Radio operator demonstrate that he or she has read
and understood the FCC rules about RF-radiation exposure?
A. By indicating his or her understanding of this requirement on an
amateur license application form at the time of application
B. By posting a copy of Part 97 at the station
C. By completing an FCC Environmental Assessment Form
D. By completing an FCC Environmental Impact Statement
T0B07 @N0C01 (D)
What amateur stations must comply with the requirements for RF
radiation exposure spelled out in Part 97?
A. Stations with antennas that exceed 10 dBi of gain.
B. Stations that have a duty cycle greater than 50 percent.
C. Stations that run more than 50 watts peak envelope power(PEP)
D. All amateur stations regardless of power
T0B08 @N0C02 (C)
Who is responsible for ensuring that an amateur station complies with
FCC Rules about RF radiation exposure?
A. The Federal Communications Commission
B. The Environmental Protection Agency
C. The licensee of the amateur station
D. The Food and Drug Administration
T0B09 @T0B05 (C)
Why do exposure limits vary with frequency?
A. Lower-frequency RF fields have more energy than higher-frequency
fields
B. Lower-frequency RF fields penetrate deeper into the body than
higher-frequency fields
C. The body's ability to absorb RF energy varies with frequency
D. It is impossible to measure specific absorption rates at some
frequencies
T0B10 @T0B06 (A)
Why is the concept of "duty cycle" one factor used to determine safe
RF radiation exposure levels?
A. It takes into account the amount of time the transmitter is
operating at full power during a single transmission
B. It takes into account the transmitter power supply rating
C. It takes into account the antenna feed line loss
D. It takes into account the thermal effects of the final amplifier
T0B11 @T0B11 (D)
From an RF safety standpoint, what impact does the duty cycle have on
the minimum safe distance separating an antenna and the neighboring
environment?
A. The lower the duty cycle, the shorter the compliance distance
B. The compliance distance is increased with an increase in the duty
cycle
C. Lower duty cycles subject the environment to lower radio-frequency
radiation cycles
D. All of these answers are correct
T0C Routine station evaluation (Practical applications for VHF/UHF
and above operations)
T0C01 @T0D01 (A)
If you do not have the equipment to measure the RF power densities
present at your station, what might you do to ensure compliance with
the FCC RF radiation exposure limits?
A. Use one or more of the methods included in the amateur supplement
to FCC OET Bulletin 65
B. Call an FCC-Certified Test Technician to perform the measurements
for you
C. Reduce power from 200 watts PEP to 100 watts PEP
D. Operate only low-duty-cycle modes such as FM
T0C02 @T0D04 (D)
Is it necessary for you to perform mathematical calculations of the RF
radiation exposure if your station transmits with more than 50 watts
peak envelope power (PEP)?
A. Yes, calculations are always required to ensure greatest accuracy
B. Calculations are required if your station is located in a densely
populated neighborhood
C. No, calculations may not give accurate results, so measurements
are always required
D. No, there are alternate means to determine if your station meets
the RF radiation exposure limits
T0C03 @N0E04 (B)
Why should you make sure the antenna of a hand-held transceiver is not
too close to your head when transmitting?
A. To help the antenna radiate energy equally in all directions
B. To reduce your exposure to the radio-frequency energy
C. To use your body to reflect the signal in one direction
D. To keep electrostatic charges from harming the operator
T0C04 @N0E05 (A)
What should you do for safety if you put up a UHF transmitting
antenna?
A. Make sure the antenna will be in a place where no one can get near
it when you are transmitting
B. Make sure that RF field screens are in place
C. Make sure the antenna is near the ground to keep its RF energy
pointing in the correct direction
D. Make sure you connect an RF leakage filter at the antenna feed
point
T0C05 @N0E06 (A)
How should you position the antenna of a hand-held transceiver while
you are transmitting?
A. Away from your head and away from others
B. Towards the station you are contacting
C. Away from the station you are contacting
D. Down to bounce the signal off the ground
T0C06 @N0E07 (B)
Why should your antennas be located so that no one can touch them
while you are transmitting?
A. Touching the antenna might cause television interference
B. Touching the antenna might cause RF burns
C. Touching the antenna might cause it to radiate harmonics
D. Touching the antenna might cause it to go into self-oscillation
T0C07 @T0E01 (B)
For the lowest RF radiation exposure to passengers, where would you
mount your mobile antenna?
A. On the trunk lid
B. On the roof
C. On a front fender opposite the broadcast radio antenna
D. On one side of the rear bumper
T0C08 @T0E02 (C)
What should you do for safety before removing the shielding on a UHF
power amplifier?
A. Make sure all RF screens are in place at the antenna feed line
B. Make sure the antenna feed line is properly grounded
C. Make sure the amplifier cannot accidentally be turned on
D. Make sure that RF leakage filters are connected
T0C09 @T0E03 (C)
Why might mobile transceivers produce less RF radiation exposure than
hand-held transceivers in mobile operations?
A. They do not produce less exposure because they usually have
higher power levels.
B. They have a higher duty cycle
C. When mounted on a metal vehicle roof, mobile antennas are
generally well shielded from vehicle occupants
D. Larger transmitters dissipate heat and energy more readily
T0C10 @T0E04 (B)
What are some reasons you should never operate a power amplifier
unless its covers are in place?
A. To maintain the required high operating temperatures of the
equipment and reduce RF radiation exposure
B. To reduce the risk of shock from high voltages and reduce RF
radiation exposure
C. To ensure that the amplifier will go into self oscillation and to
minimize the effects of stray capacitance
D. To minimize the effects of stray inductance and to reduce the risk
of shock from high voltages
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