I've looked closely at the cup Christ spoke of (Matthew 26:39) and its a different one than Gods cup of wrath (Revelation 14:10).

It's clearly speaking of what Christ has to endure, not what he has to later dish out. A cup figuratively means a fate, or something that must be done or accomplished. So, all cups spoken of are not the same cup.

Cup

4221

 4221 poterion {pot-ay'-ree-on}

 of a derivative of the alternate of 4095; TDNT - 6:148,841; n n

 AV - cup 33; 33

 1) a cup, a drinking vessel
 2) metaph. one's lot or experience, whether joyous or adverse, divine
    appointments, whether favourable or unfavourable, are likened to a
    cup which God presents one to drink: so of prosperity and adversity
 

Another synonym would be "fate" or "destiny".
 
 

Now lets look at the four gospels version of when Christ prayed about the crucifixion, which is the cup that christ has to drink. Note that shortly after these verses he is arrested and taken before council to be tried and eventually sentenced to be crucified.

Mt:26:39:
 And he went a little further, and fell on his face, and prayed, saying, O my Father, if it be possible, let this cup pass from me: nevertheless not as I will, but as thou wilt. (KJV)
Mt:26:42:
 He went away again the second time, and prayed, saying, O my Father, if this cup may not pass away from me, except I drink it, thy will be done. (KJV)

Who drinks it? Christ.

Mk:14:36:
 And he said, Abba, Father, all things are possible unto thee; take away this cup from me: nevertheless not what I will, but what thou wilt. (KJV)

Lk:22:42:
 Saying, Father, if thou be willing, remove this cup from me: nevertheless not my will, but thine, be done. (KJV)

Jn:18:11:
 Then said Jesus unto Peter, Put up thy sword into the sheath: the cup which my Father hath given me, shall I not drink it? (KJV)

Who drinks it? Christ.

The first three gospels show he did not wish to take it at that time. I think he was just scared, he was in the flesh and subject to the flesh's emotions. John makes it clear Christ knew he had to do it after he prayed to the Father. It wasn't that he didnt want to accomplish this fate, it just that he was very scared at the time. He was flesh and he did have the emotion of fear even though he was God in the flesh. Just shows that he truely had come as a human in the flesh. It wasn't a sin to fear.

Lk:22:43:
 And there appeared an angel unto him from heaven, strengthening him. (KJV)
 

If he were not scared and having a moment of weakness, why would he need to be strengthened?
 

Lk:22:44:
 And being in an agony he prayed more earnestly: and his sweat was as it were great drops of blood falling down to the ground. (KJV)
 

Have you ever feared something so greatly that you actually had great drops of sweat fall from your head? This is serious fear. He knew what was coming and it frightened him. I don't blame him one bit.
 

Mt:26:41:
 Watch and pray, that ye enter not into temptation: the spirit indeed is willing, but the flesh is weak. (KJV)

He was willing, but his flesh was protesting! It can be hard to get that old flesh to shut up, but it can be done. The spirit inside us must be stronger than the flesh and command the flesh to obey what must be done.

Mt:26:42:
 He went away again the second time, and prayed, saying, O my Father, if this cup may not pass away from me, except I drink it, thy will be done. (KJV)

A second time he prays for the Father to let this pass. This is some very serious praying, but it is not the Fathers will that this cup be passed. Prophecy demanded it be done.
 

Matthew 26:44 And he left them, and went away again, and prayed the third time, saying the same words.

A third time! He is extremely serious about having this cup pass.
 

Now to Revelation

Rv:14:9:
 And the third angel followed them, saying with a loud voice, If any man worship the beast and his image, and receive his mark in his forehead, or in his hand, (KJV)
Rv:14:10:
 The same shall drink of the wine of the wrath of God, which is poured out without mixture into the cup of his indignation; and he shall be tormented with fire and brimstone in the presence of the holy angels, and in the presence of the Lamb: (KJV)
 
 

Now, who drinks of Gods wrath? Those with the mark of the beast.
 

Mt:26:42:
 He went away again the second time, and prayed, saying, O my Father, if this cup may not pass away from me, except I drink it, thy will be done. (KJV)

Christ says he shall drink of this cup, but the cup in Revelation is for those with the mark of the beast to drink. I assure you Christ does not have the mark of the beast. The cup in Revelation is a cup of punishment for those who must drink it. It is nearly blasphemy to say that Christ must drink of this cup of wrath. He is innocent and deserves no punishment from God, far from it.

Therefore, the cup of wrath in Revelation is not the cup he speaks of in the gospels.
They are two completely different "cups" which are symbolic of two very different things
 
 






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