Introduction: We must first of all know that the entire Bible is corrupted and unreliable and is mostly filled with man-made laws and corruption! GOD Almighty Said: "`How can you say, "We [the Jews] are wise, for we have the law of the LORD," when actually the lying pen of the scribes has handled it falsely?' (From the NIV Bible, Jeremiah 8:8)"
The Revised Standard Version makes it even clearer: "How can you say, 'We are wise, and the law of the LORD is with us'? But, behold, the false pen of the scribes has made it into a lie. (From the RSV Bible, Jeremiah 8:8)"
In either translation, we clearly see that the Jews had so much corrupted the Bible with their man-made cultural laws, that they had turned the Bible into a lie!
See Also Deuteronomy 31:25-29 where Moses peace be upon him predicted the corruption/tampering of the Law (Bible) after his death.
The Book of Moses predicted that the Law (Bible) will get corrupted. The Book of Jeremiah which came approximately 826 years after did indeed confirm this corruption.
What is the punishment for rape in Christianity and in Islam?
In Christianity:
Christians follow the laws of the Bible only. All of their religious sources, laws and verdicts come straight from the Bible (if we were to have true Christian countries where Church would rule over the State), except for Roman Catholics where they have other Volumes written by Church Fathers and Popes. But most Christians in the world have no religious resources other than the Bible.
Therefore, let us look at what the Bible says regarding this issue:
Rape is a big crime that could actually take the woman's or the victim's life away. Let us examine how Christianity deals with the rapist: "If a man happens to meet a virgin who is not pledged to be married and rapes her and they are discovered, he shall pay the girl's father fifty shekels of silver. He must marry the girl, for he has violated her. He can never divorce her as long as he lives. (From the NIV Bible, Deuteronomy 22:28)" Although this Verse from the Bible only talks about virgins, but its the only verse in the entire Bible that talks about raping single women. Not to be biased or anything, but the Bible seems to have quite weird things in it that are quite irrational and quite ridiculous. Deuteronomy 22:28 forces the raped woman to marry her rapist. My question to the writers of the Bible is why in the world would any raped female victim want to be in the same town, not the same bedroom !! with her rapist?.
Also, the Bible seems to promote raping of single women: "But if out in the country a man happens to meet a girl pledged to be married and rapes her, only the man who has done this shall die. (From the NIV Bible, Deuteronomy 22:25)" This is quite an interesting verse. We see in Deuteronomy 22:28 that if a man rapes a single woman then she will be forced to be his wife, while if a man rapes a married woman in Deuteronomy 22:25, then he shall be put to death. There is absolutely no punishment for the rapist of a single woman in the Bible. For those Christians who think that they don't have to follow the Old Testament, well my answer to them is this: The Old Testament prohibits for the brother to marry his sister, or for the son to marry his mother. The New Testament doesn't even talk about it. Does that mean that a Christian brother can marry his sister? or a Christian son can marry his mother? Jesus himself anyway ordered his followers to follow the Old Testament, so their argument is totally invalid.
Question to Jews and Christians: How is the Bible supposed to prevent some loser from stalking the most beautiful single woman in town, rape her, and then sue her in court to become his wife so he can continue raping her for the rest of her life?!
Fathers sticking their fingers into their daughters' vaginas before marriage in the Bible:
Let us look at the following Verses in the Bible: "If a man takes a wife and, after laying with her, dislikes her and slanders her and gives her a bad name, saying, 'I married this woman but when I approached her, I did not find proof of her virginity,' then the girl's father and mother shall bring proof [how do you think they would do that?] that she was a virgin to the town elders at the gate. The girl's father will say to the elders, 'I gave my daughter in marriage to this man, but he dislikes her. Now he has slandered her and said, 'I did not find your daughter to be a virgin.' But here is the proof of my daughter's virginity.' Then her parents shall display the cloth [the father would literally stick his two fingers covered with a piece of cloth into his daughter's vagina before she gets married and keep that bloody cloth for as long as his daughter is married] with before the elders of the town, and the elders shall take the man and punish him. (From the NIV Bible, Deuteronomy 22:13-18)"
Here is a more clear translation from Hebrew Resources: "The girl's father and mother shall produce the evidence of the girl's virginity before the elders of the town at the gate. And the girl's father shall say to the elders, "I gave this man my daughter to wife, but he had taken an aversion to her; so he has made up charges, saying, 'I did not find your daughter a virgin.' But here is the evidence of my daughter's virginity!" And they shall spread out the cloth before the elders of the town. (From the New JPS translation, Deuteronomy 22:15-17)"
The New JPS translation of Deuteronomy 22:15-17 makes it even more clear about having the parents of the girl displaying the bloody piece of cloth before the elders of the town.
According to the Talmud, the cloth should be "A cloth of less than 3 square finger-breadths. (From the Talmud, Eruvin 29b-30a and Succah 16a)", and before it is being used, it should be "soft, woolen and clean. (From the Talmud, Niddah 17a)"
Fathers have full control over their daughters:
The thing that we all must know is that the father in the Bible has full control over his daughters. Let us look at few quotes from Talmudic and Biblical resources:
The father has the right to force their daughters into marriage: "The father has the obligation to marry off his daughters. (From the Talmud, Kiddushin 29a, 30b)", and "Marrying off one's daughter as soon after she reaches adulthood as possible, even to one's Slave. (From the Talmud, Pesachim 113a)"
The father even has the right to sell his daughter as a servant (slave girl) to other men: "If a man sells his daughter as a servant, she is not to go free as menservants do. If she does not please the master who has selected her for himself, he must let her be redeemed. He has no right to sell her to foreigners, because he has broken faith with her. (From the NIV Bible, Exodus 21:7-8)"
There is even pre-arranged marriage before the child is even born!
People before they are even born are arranged for marriage: "A Divine Voice announces who a soon-to-be-born boy and girl will marry when they grow up. (From the Talmud, Moed Katan 18b, Sotah 2a, Moed Katan 18b and Moed Katan 18b)"
Even Male Biblical figures have done it in the past:
According to the Midrash Hagadol, Isaac himself examined by inserting his finger covered with a piece of cloth into Rebekah's vagina before their marriage (Midrash Hagadol to Genesis 24:67 [ed. M. Margulies; Jerusalem: Mosad Harav Kook, 1967, 411]; according to Pirke Rabbi Eliezer, chap. 16, p. 38a, the examination consisted of defloration [ref. courtesy of Jeffrey H. Tigay, University of Pennsylvania and Prof. Judah Goldin]).
According to the apocryphal Book of James, sec. 19-20, Mary was likewise (through the act of deflowering) examined for virginity by Salome (New Testament Apocrypha, ed. E. Hennecke & W. Schneemelcher, 385; ref. courtesy of Prof. Tikva Frymer-Kensky and Jeffrey H. Tigay, University of Pennsylvania and Prof. Robert A. Kraft).
I know very well that the Iraqi and Iranian and Egyptian Jews in the old days used to do it; the father sticks his two fingers into his daughter's vagina covered in a piece of cloth and then he goes outside and shows everyone that she is virgin by displaying the bloody cloth before his daughter's actual marriage in few hours.
I had some Christians raise high objections to this point, and some had even criticized me of being a "liar". Well, beside from the above references that clearly prove my point, if you still do not believe me then go and seek it among OLD MIDDLE EASTERN Jews for yourself. Also, using your own personal common sense, explain to me what the Bible means by "her parents shall display the cloth" and its relationship to the girl's virginity? If the husband is the one to take his wife's virginity through sexual intercourse, then what would having the girl's parents displaying "the cloth" have anything to do with it?
You might then think, then how would the husband be able to know whether his wife was ever touched by another man if her father took her virginity away from her before marriage?
My answer to this question is that some men can tell by instinct whether their wives had previous relationships before when they sleep with their wives. This however is very difficult and doesn't apply to all men, especially when their wives are good in faking it. In the old Jewish culture (which was inserted into the Bible as a DIVINE REVELATION FROM GOD ALMIGHTY) fathers were to take their daughters' virginity and must keep the bloody cloth for as long as their daughters were married as a solid proof.
That is why the Bible mentions "the cloth" and orders the parents to use it as a proof. Using your own common sense, the cloth would not be a clean one like anyone you have at home. It has to be a bloody one.
Why would fathers do that?
According to the Bible, if women are caught having illegal sex, then they must be put to death. Where in the case of the man, that is not true. The text below, 4Q159, is a fragmentary collection of laws paraphrasing and modifying a number of Biblical laws. Lines 8-10 of the text read as follows:
ki yotsi' 'ish shem ra{ {al betulat yisra'el 'im b[yom] qaxto
'otah yo'mar uviqqeruha [ ]
ne'emanot v'im lo' kixesh {aleiha vehumeta ve'im be[sheqer] {ana
bah vene{enash shnei manim [velo'}]
yeshallax kol yamav
"If a man defames an Israelite virgin, if he speaks out on [the day] he marries her,
trustworthy [...] shall examine[2] her/it, and if he has not lied about her, she shall be executed.
But if he testified against her false[ly], he shall be fined two minas [...]
and he may [not] divorce (her) for his entire life...[3]"
From this text, we clearly see the hardship on the women in the Bible regarding adultery. The bride would lose her life if she was not virgin on the day she got married. So as a protection for the bride's life and her family's honor, the parents would keep the bloody cloth as a proof for her virginity for as long as she lives.
As I said, I know well that in the old Jewish culture in the Middle East, it was a common practice among them in Iran, Iraq and Egypt. I am not trying to make fun of the Jewish culture. The purpose of this article is not to make fun of them. I just want to expose the man made corruption that was illegally inserted in the Bible.
Many cultures had weird things against women and humanity. Take for instance the Hindus. It used to be part of their traditions/pagan religion to literally burn the woman ALIVE if her husband dies. They believed that if he dies, then her spirit needs to be connected with his, and by burning her ALIVE they would accomplish that. Ironically however, when the woman dies, then her husband doesn't get burnt alive nor gets executed nor even gets hurt. The man simply lives if his wife dies, but the woman gets burnt alive if her husband dies. This Hindu tradition is called the "Sati" tradition. Have the Indian government not banned it, then we would still see it practiced today.
Another example is the Pagan Arabs before Islam. My ancestors more than 1400 years ago used to bury their daughters ALIVE at the age of 2 to 4, because for many of them giving birth to females used to be shameful and would bring disgrace to the family/tribe! Islam came and stopped all of that and Muslims fought many bloody battles against the 365 Arab pagan tribes for many reasons, because Islam came and called for an end to many of the uncivilized traditions that they used to practice.
This pagan Arab culture reminds me of the Verse in the Roman Catholic Bible that says "...and the birth of ANY daughter is a loss. (From the New Jerusalem Bible, Ecclesiasticus 22:3)" And in the regular Bible,
it reminds me of the Verse that says giving birth to females causes double the filth (Leviticus 12:2-5), and fathers can literally
sell their daughters as slave-girls to other men (Exodus
21:7-8).
Inserting cultural garbage into a Holy Scripture and call it GOD's Divine Revelation would
be the greatest insult to GOD Almighty, and I as a devoted Muslim who Fasts the Holy Month
of Ramadan, Pray to Allah Almighty, pay 2.5% of my income for Islamic Zakah (Taxes) to
help the poor and do righteousness as much as possible have a great deal of problem with
that!
As for the Bible, sticking your middle finger (sorry to say that) into your daughter's vagina is not GOD's command! It is a corruption. The Old Testament is not the only Book that has many corruptions in it. The New Testament has it too. Check out the validity of the New Testament, the so called "GOD's inspired Book" to see if it's indeed a Divine Book.
The entire Bible is corrupted anyway according to its Theologians!
We must know that the Bible can not be trusted. Let us look at what the Theologians and Historians of the NIV Bible wrote about the Book of Deuteronomy:
"The book itself testifies that, for the most part, Moses wrote it (1:5; 31:9,22,24), and other OT books agree (1Ki 2:3, 8:53; 2ki 14:6; 18:12)--though the preamble (1:1-5) may have been written by someone else, and the report of Moses' death (ch.34) was almost certainly written by someone else. (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 240)"
As we clearly see, there is ample evidence that proves beyond the shadow of the doubt that Moses was not the sole author of the book. He couldn't have possibly have written about his own death. This book is obviously corrupted! How can you claim that the book of Deuteronomy was indeed all revealed by GOD Almighty? If you're not sure, and you still insist on your claim, then you are committing a crime against GOD Almighty's Revelations.
(www.answering-christianity.com/authors_gospels.htm)
The NIV Bible Theologians and Historians also commented on other books of the Bible to be corrupted by the scribes:
"...portions of the book were probably added by scribes or editors from later periods of Israel's history... (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 183)"
The Jewish scribes had very badly corrupted the Bible and turned it into a big lie. That is why GOD Almighty said:
"`How can you say, "We [the Jews] are wise, for we have the law of the LORD," when actually the lying pen of the scribes has handled it falsely?' (From the NIV Bible, Jeremiah 8:8)"
"How can you say, 'We are wise, and the law of the LORD is with us'? But, behold, the false pen of the scribes has made it into a lie. (From the RSV Bible, Jeremiah 8:8)"
In either translation above, we clearly see that the Bible has too many narrated stories and man-made cultural laws that were inserted into it that were not Divine Revelations from GOD Almighty. The following sites have tons of details that prove that [1], [2], [3], [4].
It's quite obvious that the Bible is more like a man made cultural book than a divine book that is meant to be for all times and all places. Anyway, the Bible was not even written by its original authors. That is why you see things such as "And Moses went up to the mountain...." instead of "And I [Moses] went up to the mountain....", or "And Jesus said to Matthew...." instead of "And Jesus said to me [Matthew]...." Most of the Books and Gospels of the Bible were written by third party people that were not even chosen by GOD, which makes the Bible just a cultural history book rather than a divine book from GOD Almighty. Please see Question #3 to see why Allah Almighty allowed for the Bible of today to be corrupted.
Conclusion:
The Bible is a book that had been badly corrupted by the man-made Jewish cultural nonsense through the "scribes". As we've seen above, GOD Almighty condemned the scribes in Jeremiah 8:8 and said they turned the Bible into a lie. The scribes are man made laws and lies that had been inserted into the Bible as Divine Revelations from GOD Almighty. Certainly, the "fathers inserting their fingers into their daughters' vaginas" law is a scribes' corruption in the Bible.
Punishment for rape in Islam:
In Islam, we follow the laws of the Noble Quran, and the Sayings of Prophet Muhammad peace be upon him. If a situation or case is not addressed in neither the Noble Quran, or the Sayings of our beloved Prophet, then we follow the local verdicts of our Religious Authorities, where they would decide based upon the cultural and social situation and causes.
Allah Almighty said in the Noble Quran:
"O ye who believe! Obey God, and obey the Apostle, and those charged with authority among you. If ye differ in anything among yourselves, refer it to God and His Apostle, if ye do believe in God and the Last Day: That is best, and most suitable for final determination. (The Noble Quran, 4:59)"
"When there comes to them some matter touching (Public) safety or fear, they divulge it. If they had only referred it to the Apostle, or to those charged with authority among them, the proper investigators would have Tested it from them (direct). Were it not for the Grace and Mercy of God unto you, all but a few of you would have fallen into the clutches of Satan. (The Noble Quran, 4:83)"
Since the punishment for rape doesn't exist in the Noble Quran, but exists in the Sayings of our beloved Prophet peace be upon him, then the verdict or law for punishing the rapist according to Noble Verses 4:59 and 4:83 above must come from our beloved Prophet's Sayings.
Let us look at what Prophet Muhammad peace be upon him said regarding this issue:
The following information was sent to me by brother Shahid Bin Waheed; may Allah Almighty always be pleased with him.
Let us look at how Prophet Muhammad peace be upon him dealt with the rapists:
Narrated Wa'il ibn Hujr:
"When a woman went out in the time of the Prophet
(peace_be_upon_him) for prayer, a man attacked her and overpowered (raped) her. She
shouted and he went off, and when a man came by, she said: That (man) did such and such to
me. And when a company of the Emigrants came by, she said: That man did such and such to
me. They went and seized the man whom they thought had had intercourse with her and
brought him to her.
She said: Yes, this is he. Then they brought him to the Apostle of Allah (peace_be_upon_him). When he (the Prophet) was about to pass sentence, the man who (actually) had assaulted her stood up and said: Apostle of Allah, I am the man who did it to her.
He (the Prophet) said to the woman: Go away, for Allah has forgiven you. And about the man who had intercourse with her, he said: Stone him to death.
He also said: He has repented to such an extent that if the people of Medina had repented similarly, it would have been accepted from them. (Sunan Abu Dawud, Book 38, Number 4366)"
Some Muslims do not believe in this Saying as an authentic one, because it didn't come from a "Sahih" (authentic in English) source. It came from "Sunan Abu Dawud". Sayings of our Prophet's companions and wives narrated in "Sunan Abu Dawud" are indeed authentic. But Sayings from other people such as Wa'il ibn Hujr above are doubtful. The only volumes that had been double and triple checked and are absolutely authentic to the Muslims are the "Sahih" volumes as I mentioned. With "Sunan Abu Dawud" we have to be extra careful, for it contains truthful and untruthful narrations about our Prophet peace be upon him.
However, the punishment to death for rape is not only provided in "Sunan Abu Dawud" volume, but also in "Tirmith" as shown below, thus making this law seem to be a valid one. Below, we will also see that Muslim countries like Saudi Arabia do punish the rapist to death.
UsSalaamu Alaikum dear brother Osama
I pray that you receive this with great Imaan and in good health. I like to contribute this for the website, it is an authentic ruling of Islamic Shariah about [The Punishment of Rape in Islaam]. It also quash the notion of enemies of Islaam about the women witness because it clearly proves the importance of a SINGLE woman witness [which decide the fate of man's life] which man don't have in any religion.
A RAPE IN ISLAAM
The following quote, from the book "Role of Muslim Women in Society" by Afzalur
Rahman (Seerah Foundation, London, 1986),specifically addresses the issue of _rape_ (as
opposed to adultery):
During the time of the Prophet, _Hudud_ punishment was inflicted on the person who committed adultery on the evidence of the woman who was raped by him. It is reported by Wa'il ibn Hujr that a woman went out in the time of the Prophet to go to prayer, and a man who met her attacked her and got his desire of her. She shouted and he went off, and when a company of the _Muhajirun_ came by, she said: "That man did such-and-such to me." They seized him and brought him to Allah's messenger, who said to the woman, "Go away, for Allah has forgiven you," but of the man who had had intercourse with her, he said, "Stone him to death." (Tirmithi and Abu Dawud)
This tradition leaves absolutely no doubt of the validity of the evidence of women in _hudud_ cases. It establishes, first, that in a case of rape, the solitary evidence of the raped woman, in the absence of their evidence, is considered sufficient to convict the rapist of the crime; and second, that the evidence of women is admissible in _hudud_ cases, and that there are no plausible grounds not to admit their evidence in the Islamic Shari`ah.
In the light of the above hadith, in answer to the original question, it shows that the evidence of a *single* person, the female victim, can be sufficient to convict someone of rape according to the teachings of the Messenger of Allah (s.a.w.)....
The whole confusion over the rape issue to me seems to be that when people ask about rape, all the answers that are given relate to _adultery_. _Rape_ and _adultery_ are very different things, since in adultery usually both people are consensual, whereas in the case of rape the woman is an unwilling victim. To blindly apply the Islamic rules for adultery for the case of rape to me seems to be completely absurd and totally unjust, particularly when the above hadith demonstrates that the situation for rape is different than that for adultery.
To prove a case of adultery, usually you require four eye-witnesses who saw the act of coitus, except in the special case of when one spouse is accusing another, when if the accused swears innocence the innocence is accepted, as taught in the Qur'an. For the case of _rape_, however, the above hadith demonstrates quite graphically that _four witnesses are not required_, and therefore the case of rape is _different_ from adultery.
Of course, a bit of sensible thinking also clearly shows why blindly applying the laws for adultery to the case of rape is unjust.... Unfortunately, though, many Muslims seem to see no problem with applying the laws of adultery to rape!
I wonder about to what extent such people have really thought about the issue....
Further from me, Osama Abdallah:
Saudi Arabia today applies the death penalty for the punishment of rape and other cases as well. The following quote was taken from an article from CNN.COM regarding the punishment of a rapist. He was punished to death:
"Saudi Arabia, the world's largest oil producer and Washington's closest Arab ally for more than a half century, follows a strict interpretation of Islam that calls for the death penalty for murder, rape, drug trafficking and armed robbery. (http://www.cnn.com/2001/WORLD/meast/07/20/saudi.beheading.ap/index.html)"
Here is an article that I copied and pasted from CNN.COM:
From http://www.cnn.com/2001/WORLD/meast/08/24/saudi.beheading.ap/index.html
"Two executed in Saudi Arabia for rape, drug trafficking
August 24, 2001 Posted: 11:48 AM EDT (1548 GMT)
RIYADH, Saudi Arabia (AP) -- Saudi Arabia on Friday beheaded a Saudi man for raping boys and an Indian for drug trafficking, the Interior Ministry said.
In the capital Riyadh, Saudi citizen Dowaihi bin Mohammed al-Qahtani was executed after he was convicted of armed robbery and kidnapping and raping boys, the ministry said in a statement carried by the official Saudi Press Agency.
Seyed bin Mahboub Amir, from India, was executed in Riyadh for smuggling an unspecified quantity of heroin into the kingdom, according to the statement.
Friday's executions bring to at least 74 the number of people beheaded this year in the kingdom, where executions are carried out in public with a sword. Last year, 125 people were beheaded.
Saudi Arabia follows a strict interpretation of Islam that demands the death penalty for murder, rape, drug trafficking and armed robbery."
Very Important Note: In Islam, determining the case as a rape case is important and would mean the difference between life and death to the man. There is a difference between a rapist who is caught raping innocent children as shown in the article above, or someone who forcibly raped a woman beyond her will after stalking her, and someone went with his girlfriend on his boat (by her own will) to the middle of the sea, and spent the night there together, and she came back claiming that he raped her.
If a woman seems that she invited a man to have sex with her, or was willing to have sex with him and both went away and came back later, and then she claims that he raped her, and he denies that, then her case would be considered invalid, and both of them would be determined to have had illegal sex, and therefore, both of them would get punished for it. The point is that, women don't always determine the rape case. And the men's lives are not under the women's mercy. The woman has to be stalked and raped in order for her case to be considered a rape case.
Do I agree with applying the above Saying of our beloved Prophet peace be upon him and not agree with applying his Sayings in the case of Apostates in Islam, and Punishment of adultery in Islam?
The above Saying of our beloved Prophet doesn't conflict with the laws of the Noble Quran, because only adultery/fornication was addressed in the Noble Quran and not rape explicitly for the "illegal sex" cases. In the case of "Apostates in Islam" and "Punishment of adultery in Islam" articles, I showed clearly that the Sayings of Prophet Muhammad peace be upon him were temporary and Allah Almighty meant for them to be temporary, because Islam was still partial and the Muslims had to deal with many hypocrites from the People of the Book [Jews and Christians], and fix many social problems and corruptions that people used to live by before Islam. Allah Almighty in the Noble Quran set the Bigger Law for the two situations that must be followed for all times and all places.
It is important to know that many Muslim scholars believe in applying the punishment for adultery to the rapist, since as I said, the Noble Quran only addresses adultery/fornication for the "illegal sex" cases.
I personally think that since the Saying of our Prophet didn't exist in any of the "Sahih" volumes, which are the authentic volumes for his Sayings, then following this Saying in all cases would be seem to be unfair to the rapist, because (1) We don't know if the rapist in the Saying was a single or married man, which would make the difference between flogging him 100 stripes and stoning him to death; and (2) We don't have other witnesses other than the narrator for the validity of the Saying.
Important Note: Even the "stoning to death" for the married adulterer/adulteress is ambiguous, because it seems that Allah Almighty had replaced this law with the "flogging of 100 stripes" one. This is verified at this article.
Further sites to research:
Women in Christianity and Islam.
Girls getting raped at the age of 3 is allowed in the Jewish Holiest Book, the Thalmud.
X-Rated Pornography in the Bible.
Contradictions even in Pornography in the Bible.
Church Priests/Ministers who changed their sex and still preach in their Churches.
If the husband rapes his wife, is that a sin in Islam? Is there any answers to this in the Quran?
References/Bibliography:
1- The Jewish Talmud.
2- For this meaning of baqqer see M. Jastrow, A Dictionary of the Targumim, the Talmud Babli and Yerushalmi, and the Midrashic Literature (repr. New York: Pardes, 1950), 1:187.
3- 4Q159, fragments 2-4, lines 8-10 (from J.M. Allegro, with the collaboration of A.A. Anderson, Discoveries in the Judaean Desert of Jordan 5. Qumran Cave 4/I (4Q158-4Q186) (Oxford: Clarendon, 1968), 8 and pl. II; corrected readings from J. Strugnell, "Notes en marge du Volume V des 'Discoveries in the Judaean Desert of Jordan,'" RQ 26 (1970), 178, and R. Weiss, review of DJD 5, in Qiryat Sefer 45 (1970):58 col. i (repr. in R. Weiss, Studies in the Text and Language of the Bible [Jerusalem: Magnes, 1981], 326 [in Hebrew]). T.H. Gaster assumes that there is no lacuna following uviqqeruha and construes ne'emanot as an adverbial accusative, "reliably," modifying the verb (The Dead Sea Scriptures, 3d ed. [Garden City: Anchor/Doubleday, 1976], 93; cf. the one-letter restoration uviqqeru[hu] ne'emanot by Mr. Y. Buchsenbaum of Jerusalem, cited by Rofe, Mavo' Lesefer Devarim, 158). However, the parchment is broken on the left edge of the final letter of uviqqeruha, and there is certainly a word missing (velo') in the same spot one line below. [ref. courtesy of Jeffrey H. Tigay, University of Pennsylvania].
4- The NIV Study Bible, 10th Anniversary Edition.
General Editor: Kenneth Barker.
Associate Editors: Donald Burdick, John Stek, Walter Wessel and Ronald Youngblood.
Published at: Zondervan Publishing House, Grand Rapids, MI 49530, USA
ISBN: 0-310-92589-4.
Back to Ask me any question section.
Women in Christianity and Islam.
Please email me at Osama Abdallah
Back to either www.aol40.com or www.answering-christianity.com
Both sites are exactly the same
You are visitor number:
since 4/13/1999.